ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Final Questions
Question 1 of 5
The following are subject to extensive presystemic (first-pass) metabolism:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver, which reduces its oral bioavailability significantly.
Question 2 of 5
Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug may be absorbed. This process is known as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enterohepatic cycling refers to the process where drugs excreted into bile are delivered to the intestines and then reabsorbed into the bloodstream. This recycling can prolong the drug's presence in the body and its therapeutic effects. Hepatic clearance and total clearance refer to the liver's ability to remove drugs from the bloodstream, while the first-pass effect involves the metabolism of drugs before they reach systemic circulation. Enterohepatic cycling is a unique mechanism that impacts drug pharmacokinetics.
Question 3 of 5
A 63-year-old man with glaucoma maintained on a regimen of topical medications with an exacerbation of his symptoms. He complains of difficulty with his vision in both eyes and has headaches. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glaucoma involves elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), and this patient's exacerbation-vision difficulty and headaches-requires effective IOP reduction. Bimatoprost and Latanoprost are prostaglandin analogs, increasing outflow, but may not act fast enough for acute worsening. Pilocarpine , a muscarinic agonist, contracts the ciliary muscle, opening the trabecular meshwork, enhancing aqueous humor outflow, and rapidly lowering IOP-ideal for this scenario. Tetracycline is an antibiotic, irrelevant. Travoprost (E), another prostaglandin, is similar to A and B. Pilocarpine's direct action on outflow makes it most appropriate for urgent IOP control in open-angle or angle-closure glaucoma exacerbation. Its side effects (miosis, brow ache) are tolerable given the need for immediate relief, distinguishing it from slower-acting prostaglandins.
Question 4 of 5
A 26-year-old man with a chronic cough takes codeine for cough suppression. He presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. The patient admits to taking this medication three times daily even when he does not have symptoms. The treating physician must be concerned about which of the following effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Codeine, an opioid, risks addiction with frequent use. Diarrhea opposes its constipating effect. Euphoria and anxiety are possible but less concerning. Sweating (E) is minor. Addiction potential drives monitoring, given his overuse pattern.
Question 5 of 5
When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct technique when administering topical nitroglycerin ointment is to remove the old ointment before applying new ointment. This is important to prevent an accumulation of the medication on the skin, which can lead to an overdose. It is crucial to follow the prescribed instructions for applying topical medications to ensure safe and effective administration.