ATI RN
ATI Practice Exam Pharmacology The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 9
The following are schedule II drugs, except :
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and dependency but also have accepted medical uses. A, C, D, and E are all classified as schedule II drugs. However, heroin is not a schedule II drug; it is classified as a schedule I drug due to its extremely high potential for abuse and lack of accepted medical use in the United States.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been changed from a first generation H1 receptor antagonist to a second generation H1 receptor antagonist. The nurse evaluates that the patient understands the benefit of this change when which statement is made?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Second-generation H1 antagonists (e.g., loratadine) are less lipophilic, reducing blood-brain barrier crossing, thus causing less sedation than first-generation ones (e.g., diphenhydramine). 'This drug will not make me as sleepy' shows the patient grasps this benefit, improving daily function. Alcohol still risks sedation. Dry mouth and urinary issues are anticholinergic effects less reduced in second-generation drugs. Choice D confirms understanding of the primary advantage.
Question 3 of 9
A client is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec) for GERD. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Omeprazole, a PPI, reduces acid by inhibiting proton pumps, most effective before meals when acid production peaks, optimizing GERD relief. With antacids reduces efficacy'PPIs need acidic pH. Crushing destroys enteric coating. Bedtime-only misses daytime acid. Pre-meal dosing aligns with omeprazole's mechanism, critical in GERD where timing enhances healing, making A the key instruction.
Question 4 of 9
Three days after a patient's total colectomy and ileostomy, he has a nasogastric tube for continuous suction and a Foley catheter for continuous drainage. The night nurse reports a high output from the ileostomy. The patient's pulse is irregular, and he reports leg weakness. Based on this situation, the nurse would correctly suspect what type of imbalance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of irregular pulse and leg weakness, along with high ileostomy output, suggest hypokalemia. High ileostomy output can lead to excessive loss of potassium, a key electrolyte responsible for muscle and nerve function. Hypokalemia can cause muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, which align with the patient's symptoms. Hyperkalemia (B) would typically cause muscle cramps and cardiac abnormalities like peaked T-waves, not weakness. Hyponatremia (C) and hypercalcemia (D) do not typically present with these specific symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
What is the action of Metformin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes. It works through multiple mechanisms to help control blood sugar levels.
Question 6 of 9
The following are schedule II drugs, except :
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and dependency but also have accepted medical uses. A, C, D, and E are all classified as schedule II drugs. However, heroin is not a schedule II drug; it is classified as a schedule I drug due to its extremely high potential for abuse and lack of accepted medical use in the United States.
Question 7 of 9
A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department unconscious. He undergoes a CT of the chest, which reveals a pulmonary embolism. He is considered for immediate therapy with heparin. Because the man is unconscious, a history cannot be obtained from him. Which of the following would represent a contraindication to heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Heparin for pulmonary embolism has bleeding risks. Recent surgery -is a contraindication due to postoperative hemorrhage potential. Alcoholism , drug abuse , hypertension , and immune deficiency (E) aren't absolute. Surgery's timing is key in this unconscious patient.
Question 8 of 9
A 26-year-old alcoholic man is trying to quit drinking. He complains that previous attempts have been thwarted by intense anxiety and insomnia that occur in the absence of alcohol. These symptoms disappear when he resumes alcohol use. Which of the following medications will reduce this patient's anxiety and insomnia from his alcohol withdrawal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal (anxiety, insomnia) responds to benzodiazepines, but Methadone is listed-likely a typo for a benzo like lorazepam assumed. Acamprosate reduces cravings. Disulfiram deters drinking. Naltrexone (E) blocks reward. Methanol is toxic. Benzos calm withdrawal.
Question 9 of 9
The physiologic differences in the pediatric patient compared with the adult patient affect the amount of drug needed to produce a therapeutic effect. The nurse is aware that one of the main differences is that infants have
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Infants have a higher percentage of total body water (approximately 75%) compared to adults. This difference affects the distribution and concentration of water-soluble drugs, often requiring adjustments in dosing to achieve therapeutic effects. Increased protein in circulation, lower fat composition, and more muscular body composition are not primary factors influencing drug therapy in infants. Therefore, the nurse must consider the higher water composition when calculating drug dosages for pediatric patients.