ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The following are recognized as causes of drug-induced aplastic anemia:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chloramphenicol is a known cause of drug-induced aplastic anemia due to its toxic effects on bone marrow.
Question 2 of 5
A 30-year-old male patient is brought to the ER with the following symptoms attributed to a drug overdose: HR and BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. Of the following drugs, which one is most likely to be responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphetamine overdose causes sympathomimetic toxicity: elevated heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) from catecholamine release, mydriasis via alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and CNS excitation—aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations—due to dopamine and norepinephrine excess. Ethanol overdose typically depresses CNS, causing sedation, not excitation, despite possible tachycardia. Fentanyl, an opioid, leads to respiratory depression and miosis, opposite to these symptoms. Flunitrazepam, a benzodiazepine, sedates and lowers BP. Marijuana might cause paranoia but not this full sympathomimetic profile. Amphetamine's stimulant properties directly explain the cardiovascular, pupillary, and psychiatric symptoms, making it the most likely culprit in this acute presentation.
Question 3 of 5
The physician has prescribed haloperidol (Haldol) for the patient with schizophrenia. What is the priority patient outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a conventional antipsychotic, treats schizophrenia by reducing positive symptoms like hallucinations, but its efficacy depends on adherence. The priority outcome is medication compliance, as relapse is common without consistent use, undermining all other goals. Adequate fluids and fiber mitigate side effects (e.g., constipation) but are secondary to ensuring treatment continuity. Decreased hallucinations is a desired effect, not an outcome ensuring it happens. Restlessness indicates side effects (e.g., akathisia), not a goal. Compliance is foundational, as schizophrenia's chronic nature requires long-term management, making choice B the nurse's primary focus for successful therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A 5-year-old African American patient has been admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit with pheochromocytoma. The physician has ordered phentolamine. The nurse knows that the other indication for phentolamine is what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phentolamine (Regitine) is used for the prevention of cell death and tissue sloughing after extravasation of intravenous norepinephrine or dopamine, and severe hypertension reactions caused by manipulation of the pheochromocytoma before and during surgery; diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Phentolamine would not be indicated for treatment of migraine headaches, life-threatening arrhythmias, or heart failure. The nurse should understand the indications for phentolamine to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 5 of 5
The following are recognized as causes of drug-induced aplastic anemia:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chloramphenicol is a known cause of drug-induced aplastic anemia due to its toxic effects on bone marrow.