The following androgen does not produce cholestatic jaundice as an adverse effect:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Stanozolol. Stanozolol is a synthetic derivative of dihydrotestosterone that is not associated with cholestatic jaundice due to its unique chemical structure. Testosterone propionate, Methyl testosterone, and Fluoxymesterone are all known to be associated with cholestatic jaundice. Testosterone propionate and Methyl testosterone are androgens that can cause liver dysfunction leading to cholestatic jaundice, while Fluoxymesterone is a 17-alpha-alkylated androgen that has been linked to liver toxicity and cholestatic jaundice. Stanozolol, on the other hand, is not metabolized by the liver in the same way as the other androgens, which reduces its potential for causing cholestatic jaundice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flutamide. Flutamide is a non-steroidal antiandrogen used in advanced prostate carcinoma. It works by blocking androgen receptors in the prostate, thereby inhibiting the growth of prostate cancer cells. When combined with a GnRH agonist, it helps reduce testosterone levels further, providing palliative treatment for advanced prostate cancer. A: Cyproterone acetate is another antiandrogen, but it is a steroidal one and not commonly used for this purpose. B: Danazol is not typically used in the treatment of advanced prostate carcinoma. C: Finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor used for benign prostatic hyperplasia and male pattern baldness, not for advanced prostate cancer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because estrogens do not cause cornification of vaginal epithelium. Estrogens are responsible for proliferation of endometrium, maturation of graafian follicle, and anabolism. Cornification of vaginal epithelium is mainly influenced by androgens. So, the action described in choice A is not a direct effect of estrogens.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atrophic vaginitis. In this condition, the primary treatment is usually local estrogen therapy to alleviate symptoms of vaginal dryness and discomfort. Estrogen is added as an adjuvant to progestin to address the specific symptoms of atrophic vaginitis, making it the correct choice. A: Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is typically treated with hormonal therapies targeting estrogen and progestin balance, not as an adjuvant. B: Menopausal syndrome is commonly treated with hormone replacement therapy, where estrogen is the primary drug, not an adjuvant. C: Osteoporosis treatment focuses on medications that help prevent bone loss and improve bone density, with estrogen not typically used as an adjuvant.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lower than that for contraception. Estrogen dose for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is lower than that for contraception because the goal is to provide symptom relief and reduce health risks without stimulating ovulation. Estrogen dose for contraception needs to be higher to suppress ovulation effectively. Choices A and B are incorrect as they incorrectly assume equivalence or higher dose needed for hormone replacement therapy. Choice D is incorrect as estrogen dose for hormone replacement therapy is generally consistent and not variable based on age.