ATI RN
mastering microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The First-line tuberculosis drugs include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid and rifampicin. These drugs are considered first-line treatment for tuberculosis due to their high efficacy and low toxicity. Isoniazid targets the cell wall of the tuberculosis bacteria, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis. They are recommended by WHO as the first choice for treating tuberculosis. Choice B (Penicillin and erythromycin) is incorrect because these antibiotics are not effective against tuberculosis bacteria. Choice C (Trimethoprim and third generation cephalosporins) is incorrect because they are not considered first-line drugs for tuberculosis treatment. Choice D (All the listed above can be used depending on their resistance profile) is incorrect because only isoniazid and rifampicin are universally recognized as first-line drugs for tuberculosis regardless of resistance profile.
Question 2 of 5
One of the basic principles of chemotherapy is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Selective toxicity. Chemotherapy aims to target cancer cells while minimizing harm to healthy cells, known as selective toxicity. This principle is crucial to effectively treat cancer without causing excessive damage to the patient's body. Accumulation in the macroorganism (B) and causing allergies (C) are not fundamental principles of chemotherapy and can lead to harmful side effects. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the core objective of chemotherapy.
Question 3 of 5
Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for answer A: 1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to cause burn wounds infections due to its ability to survive in moist environments. 2. It can cause severe pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis due to its resistance to antibiotics and ability to form biofilms. 3. It is a common cause of nosocomial infections in hospitals due to its ability to colonize medical equipment and surfaces. Summary of other choices: B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa typically does not cause food poisoning, as it is not a common pathogen associated with foodborne illnesses. C. Bacterial pharyngitis is usually caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, not Pseudomonas aeruginosa, making this choice incorrect. D. None of the above is incorrect as Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with specific infections mentioned in option A.
Question 4 of 5
Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery can be isolated from the patient's blood:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillary dysentery primarily affects the intestinal tract, not the bloodstream. 2. Bacteremia is rare in bacillary dysentery, as the infection is localized. 3. Isolating bacteria from the blood is not a typical diagnostic feature. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Summary: Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery are not typically isolated from the patient's blood due to the localized nature of the infection. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest specific timeframes, which are not relevant to bacteremia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as bacteremia is not associated with bacillary dysentery.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has a suspected pneumonia. In his sputum there were revealed gram-positive diplococci, prolonged with the slightly pointed opposite ends. What microorganisms are revealed in the sputum?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The description matches that of Streptococcus pneumoniae, which appears as gram-positive diplococci with slightly pointed opposite ends. Staphylococcus aureus, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Neisseria meningitidis do not match the specific characteristics described in the question. Staphylococcus aureus appears in grape-like clusters, while Neisseria species are typically seen as diplococci but lack the pointed shape described. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus.