The female reproductive system includes the following organs/structures:

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

medical microbiology test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The female reproductive system includes the following organs/structures:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the female reproductive system consists of the uterus, ovaries, vagina, and fallopian tubes. The ovaries produce eggs, the fallopian tubes transport the eggs to the uterus, where fertilization can occur. The vagina is the birth canal and where sperm is deposited during intercourse. The uterus is where a fertilized egg implants and a fetus develops. Choice A is incorrect because it includes the kidneys, which are part of the urinary system, not the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because it includes the bladder and duodenum, which are part of the urinary and digestive systems, respectively, not the reproductive system. Choice C is incorrect because it includes the bladder and ureter, which are part of the urinary system, not the reproductive system.

Question 2 of 9

CDC stands for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The CDC is a U.S. government agency responsible for protecting public health and safety. The correct answer is the only choice that accurately reflects the agency's purpose. Choice B (Children's Disease Center) is incorrect because the CDC's scope is not limited to children's health. Choice C (Central Disaster Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC primarily focuses on disease prevention. Choice D (Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC's main focus is not on drug evaluation. Thus, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the CDC's mission and responsibilities.

Question 3 of 9

The time in minutes in which 90% of the bacterial population will be killed at a given temperature is called the

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: decimal reduction time. This term represents the time required at a specific temperature to kill 90% of a bacterial population. It is a key parameter in microbiology to determine the effectiveness of a given heat treatment. Generation time (A) refers to the time it takes for a population to double in size. Thermal death time (B) is the shortest time needed to kill all organisms at a specific temperature. Sterilization time (C) is a general term and does not specifically refer to the time required to kill 90% of the population.

Question 4 of 9

A patient of oral surgery department has developed a purulent complication. Bacteriological analysis of the wound discharge allowed to isolate a culture producing a blue-and-green pigment. Which of the listed microorganisms may be a causative agent of the infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for producing a blue-green pigment called pyocyanin, which is characteristic of its colonies. This bacterium is commonly associated with purulent infections, especially in immunocompromised patients. Proteus vulgaris (B) is not typically associated with blue-green pigment production. Bacillus subtilis (C) is not a common pathogen in wound infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) does not produce blue-green pigment and is more commonly associated with respiratory infections. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and pigment production, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most likely causative agent in this case.

Question 5 of 9

AST determines the antibiotic panels; Gram (+) panel includes:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxacillin. In AST for Gram-positive bacteria, the antibiotic panel typically includes oxacillin to determine if the bacterium is susceptible or resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics. Oxacillin is commonly used to test for methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus. Tetracycline (B), Tobramycin (C), and Amikacin (D) are not typically included in the Gram-positive antibiotic panel. Tetracycline is more commonly used for Gram-negative bacteria, while Tobramycin and Amikacin are aminoglycosides usually tested in Gram-negative bacterial infections. Therefore, they are not appropriate choices for the Gram-positive antibiotic panel.

Question 6 of 9

Which bacteria is responsible for causing the disease known as syphilis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Treponema pallidum. This bacterium is responsible for causing syphilis due to its unique spiral shape and ability to penetrate mucous membranes. It is transmitted through sexual contact or from mother to fetus. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and Escherichia coli is a common bacterium in the gastrointestinal tract. Syphilis is distinct due to its characteristic symptoms and stages, making Treponema pallidum the correct choice.

Question 7 of 9

Bacterial spores are resistant to harsh conditions due to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the presence of calcium dipicolinate in bacterial spores helps protect their DNA from damage under harsh conditions. Calcium dipicolinate acts as a stabilizer, preserving the spore structure. Choice A is incorrect as bacterial spores have a tough protein coat, not a lipid-rich membrane. Choice C is incorrect as bacterial spores have very low metabolic activity. Choice D is incorrect as bacterial spores have low water content to prevent damage during harsh conditions.

Question 8 of 9

Which bacteria are associated with causing urinary tract infections?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria (Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus) can cause urinary tract infections. E. coli is the most common causative agent of UTIs, followed by Staphylococcus aureus and occasionally Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Each of these bacteria has different virulence factors that enable them to infect the urinary tract. Therefore, it is important to consider all three options when diagnosing and treating UTIs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of those bacteria can individually cause UTIs, so the correct answer is D, as it encompasses all the possible causative agents.

Question 9 of 9

Saddle nose is characteristic of which of the following congenital infections?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Saddle nose is a condition where the bridge of the nose collapses, a characteristic feature of congenital syphilis. This occurs due to inflammation and destruction of cartilage. Syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. CMV, Rubella, and Toxoplasmosis do not typically cause saddle nose. CMV can result in hearing loss, Rubella can lead to cataracts and heart defects, and Toxoplasmosis may cause hydrocephalus or chorioretinitis.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days