Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the female reproductive system consists of the uterus, ovaries, vagina, and fallopian tubes. The ovaries produce eggs, the fallopian tubes transport the eggs to the uterus, where fertilization can occur. The vagina is the birth canal and where sperm is deposited during intercourse. The uterus is where a fertilized egg implants and a fetus develops. Choice A is incorrect because it includes the kidneys, which are part of the urinary system, not the reproductive system. Choice B is incorrect because it includes the bladder and duodenum, which are part of the urinary and digestive systems, respectively, not the reproductive system. Choice C is incorrect because it includes the bladder and ureter, which are part of the urinary system, not the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Dysenteric amoeba (Choice A) is the correct answer because it can exist asymptomatically in carriers and be transmitted through cysts. 2. Malarial plasmodium (Choice B) causes malaria, not carried asymptomatically in cysts. 3. Intestinal trichomonad (Choice C) causes trichomoniasis, not carried asymptomatically in cysts. 4. Dermatotropic leishmania (Choice D) causes skin lesions, not carried asymptomatically in cysts.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metronidazole is a synthetic antiprotozoal drug commonly used for wound infection prevention. 2. It is highly effective against Helicobacter pylori, a bacterium that causes stomach ulcers. 3. Metronidazole works by disrupting DNA structure in bacteria, leading to their death. 4. Chingamin (Chloroquine) is an antimalarial drug, not effective against Helicobacter pylori. 5. Doxycycline hydrochloride is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not specifically for H. pylori. 6. Aciclovir is an antiviral drug used for herpes infections, not effective against H. pylori. Summary: Metronidazole is the correct answer as it is specifically effective against H. pylori and commonly used for wound infection prevention. Other choices are incorrect as they target different types of infections.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malaria. Fever developing 2 weeks post-blood transfusion is characteristic of malaria due to the incubation period of the parasite. Trypanosomiasis presents earlier, amebiasis usually causes GI symptoms, and toxoplasmosis typically manifests with flu-like symptoms. Malaria is the most likely cause based on the timing and clinical presentation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wasserman test, IFT. The patient's symptoms of diffuse alopecia and Pinkus' sign are suggestive of secondary syphilis. The Wasserman test and Immunofluorescence Test (IFT) are used to detect antibodies against Treponema pallidum, the bacterium causing syphilis. This would confirm or rule out syphilis as the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice B (T.pallidum Immobilization Test) is similar to the Wasserman test but less commonly used. Choice C (Detection of the nasal mucous membrane for M.leprae) is irrelevant as leprosy does not present with the described symptoms. Choice D (Consultation of neuropathist) is premature without ruling out syphilis first. Thus, the Wasserman test, IFT should be the initial examination to investigate the likely cause of the patient's symptoms.