The family members of a patient who has just been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with multiple traumatic injuries have just arrived in the ICU waiting room. Which action should the nurse take next?

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Question 1 of 9

The family members of a patient who has just been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with multiple traumatic injuries have just arrived in the ICU waiting room. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Explain ICU visitation policies and encourage family visits. This is the best course of action because it prioritizes the needs of the family members by providing them with information on visitation policies and encouraging them to visit the patient. This helps establish communication, support, and involvement in the patient's care. It also respects the family's emotional needs during a challenging time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Immediately taking the family members to the patient's bedside may overwhelm them and disrupt the patient's care. C: Describing the patient's injuries and care being provided should be done in a more controlled environment to ensure the family's understanding and emotional readiness. D: Inviting the family to a multidisciplinary care conference may be premature without first addressing their immediate concerns and providing support.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse understands that many strategies are available to address ethical issues that may occur; these strategies include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethics consultation services. These services involve seeking guidance from experts to navigate complex ethical dilemmas. They provide in-depth analysis and recommendations based on ethical principles, helping healthcare professionals make informed decisions. Change-of-shift report updates (A) are essential for continuity of care but do not directly address ethical issues. Formal multiprofessional ethics committees (C) are valuable for reviewing policies and addressing systemic ethical concerns but may not be readily available for immediate guidance. Pastoral care services (D) offer spiritual support but may not always have the expertise to handle complex ethical dilemmas. Ethics consultation services (B) are the most suitable option for addressing specific ethical issues promptly and effectively.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.

Question 4 of 9

A mode of pressure-targeted ventilation that provides posiatbivirbe. cporme/tsessut re to decrease the workload of spontaneous breathing through what action by the endotracheal tube?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure support ventilation. This mode delivers a set pressure to support each spontaneous breath, decreasing the workload of breathing. Pressure support ventilation assists the patient's inspiratory efforts without providing a set tidal volume like in volume-targeted ventilation. Continuous positive airway pressure (Choice A) maintains a constant level of positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle but does not actively support spontaneous breathing efforts. Positive end-expiratory pressure (Choice B) maintains positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar collapse but does not directly support spontaneous breathing. T-piece adapter (Choice D) is a weaning device that allows the patient to breathe spontaneously without ventilatory support.

Question 5 of 9

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because CRRT removes solutes and water slowly, which is beneficial for hemodynamically unstable patients. This slow removal allows for gradual fluid and electrolyte balance adjustments, reducing the risk of hemodynamic instability. A: Incorrect - A hemofilter is indeed used in CRRT, but this choice does not highlight the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis. B: Incorrect - CRRT actually provides slower solute and water removal compared to intermittent hemodialysis. C: Incorrect - Diffusion does occur in CRRT, as it is a key mechanism for solute removal in the process. In summary, the key difference between CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis is the slow removal of solutes and water in CRRT, making choice D the correct answer.

Question 6 of 9

A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. Spontaneous re spirations are 12 breaths/min. The patient receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and now respi rations decrease to 4 breaths/min. What adjustments may need to be made to the patient’s ve ntilator settings?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. When the patient's spontaneous respirations decrease to match the ventilator rate, it indicates that the patient is not actively participating in breathing. Changing to assist/control ventilation allows the patient to trigger breaths when they desire, ensuring a more synchronized and comfortable breathing pattern. A: Adding PEEP may help improve oxygenation but is not directly related to the issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. B: Adding pressure support provides additional support during inspiration but does not address the underlying issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. D: Increasing the SIMV respiratory rate would not address the patient's decreased spontaneous respirations and could potentially lead to overventilation.

Question 7 of 9

A male client is angry and is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA). The client demands to take his chart with him and states the chart is 'his' and he doesn’t want any more contact with the hospital. How should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client's medical chart is the property of the hospital, but the client has the right to a copy of the information. By offering to make a copy of the chart for the client, the nurse respects the client's autonomy while also ensuring that the hospital maintains the original medical record. This response balances the client's rights with legal and ethical considerations. Choice A is incorrect because the hospital is legally obligated to maintain the client's medical record even if the client leaves against medical advice. Choice B is incorrect as it denies the client access to their medical information, which goes against the principle of patient autonomy. Choice C is also incorrect as it does not address the client's request for a copy of their chart.

Question 8 of 9

A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Assessing how long the client has been taking clonidine is crucial as drowsiness is a common side effect that typically improves over time as the body adjusts to the medication. This information helps determine if the drowsiness is a temporary side effect or a more concerning issue. Choice A (constipation) is not directly related to drowsiness as a side effect of clonidine. Choice B (missed doses) may contribute to drowsiness but is not the primary assessment priority. Choice D (tobacco use) is not directly related to clonidine-induced drowsiness.

Question 9 of 9

Conditions that produce acute kidney injury by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal. The most common intrarenal condition is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common intrarenal condition as it directly affects kidney tubules. 2. ATN is characterized by damage to renal tubular cells due to various factors like toxins or ischemia. 3. Prolonged ischemia (choice A) can lead to ATN but is not the most common intrarenal condition. 4. Exposure to nephrotoxic substances (choice B) can cause ATN, but ATN itself is more common. 5. Hypotension for several hours (choice D) can result in ischemia and subsequent ATN, but ATN is still the primary intrarenal condition.

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