ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The family members are excited about being transferring t heir loved one from the critical care unit to the intermediate care unit. However, they are also fearful of the change in environment and nursing staff. To reduce relocation stress, the nurse ca n implement what intervention? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Arranging for the nurses on the intermediate care unit to give the family a tour of the new unit) because it helps familiarize the family with the new environment, alleviating their fears. The tour allows them to see where their loved one will be cared for, meet the nursing staff, and ask any questions they may have. This intervention promotes a smooth transition, reduces anxiety, and builds trust. Choice B is incorrect because delaying the transfer doesn't address the fear of change and can prolong stress. Choice C is incorrect as proximity to the nurse's station may not necessarily reduce relocation stress for the family. Choice D is incorrect because meeting the new nurse in the current unit may not provide the same level of comfort and preparation compared to physically visiting the new unit.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is in a progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because after arteriovenous fistula implantation, it is essential to assess for the presence of a bruit (audible sound caused by turbulent blood flow) and thrill (vibratory sensation) in the access site, which indicates proper functioning of the fistula. This assessment ensures that blood is flowing adequately through the newly created access for dialysis or other procedures. Drawing blood or taking blood pressures from the fistula arm can lead to complications such as clot formation or damage to the fistula. Starting a new IV line in the same arm is contraindicated to avoid compromising the newly created fistula. Thus, auscultating for a bruit and palpating for a thrill are the appropriate nursing actions in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A patient declared brain dead is an organ donor. The following events occur: 1300 Diagnostic tests for brain death are completed. 1330 primary care provider reviews diagnostic test results and writes in the progress note that the patient is brain deaadb.i r1b.4co0m0/ tePsat tient is taken to the operating room for organ retrieval. 1800 All organs have b een retrieved for donation. The ventilator is discontinued. 1810 Cardiac monitor shows fla tline. What is the official time of death recorded in the medical record?
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided, but based on the events described, the official time of death recorded in the medical record should be 1810 (Choice D). At this time, the cardiac monitor shows flatline, indicating the cessation of cardiac activity, which is the universally accepted point of declaring death. Choice A (1300) is incorrect because that is when diagnostic tests for brain death were completed, but the patient was not officially declared dead at that time. Choice B (1330) is incorrect as this is when the primary care provider reviewed the test results and documented brain death in the progress note, but the patient was not officially declared dead at this time either. Choice C (1400) is incorrect as there is no significant event occurring at this time that signifies the patient's death. Therefore, the most appropriate and official time of death recorded in the medical record would be 1810 when the cardiac monitor shows flatline.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse manager recognizes which action as an effectiveab sirtbr.acotmeg/teys tf or promoting changes in practice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it involves a structured approach to promoting changes in practice. By asking the clinical nurse specialist to lead a journal club on open visitation after each nurse reads a research article, it ensures that all nurses are informed and engaged in the topic. This approach promotes evidence-based practice and encourages active participation. Option B is less effective as discussing pros and cons at a staff meeting may not ensure that all nurses have the necessary knowledge to make informed decisions. Option C may not consider diverse perspectives and may not involve all staff members equally. Option D involves a select group of volunteers and may not reflect the views of the entire team. Overall, option A is the most inclusive and educational approach to promoting changes in practice.
Question 5 of 9
The term used to describe an increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: azotemia. Azotemia refers to an increase in BUN and serum creatinine levels, indicating impaired kidney function. Oliguria (A) is a decrease in urine output, not specific to BUN and creatinine levels. Acute kidney injury (C) is a broader term encompassing various causes of kidney dysfunction, not specific to elevated BUN and creatinine. Prerenal disease (D) refers to conditions affecting blood flow to the kidneys, not directly related to elevated BUN and creatinine levels.
Question 6 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for advanced cancer reports fatigue and loss of appetite. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Provide rest periods to reduce fatigue. Prioritizing rest periods can help alleviate fatigue, a common symptom in patients with advanced cancer. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice A) may not be effective if the patient has no appetite. Administering appetite stimulants (choice B) may not address the root cause of fatigue. Discussing parenteral nutrition (choice D) is not the priority as it does not directly address the fatigue and loss of appetite reported by the patient. Rest is essential for symptom management and overall well-being in palliative care.
Question 7 of 9
What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary nursing. Primary nursing is a care delivery model where one nurse is responsible for the total care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period. This promotes continuity of care, individualized attention, and better nurse-client relationships. In primary nursing, the nurse plans and directs care, coordinates with other healthcare team members, and serves as the main point of contact for the clients. A: Case management involves coordinating care across different healthcare providers and services, not necessarily focusing on a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period. B: Team nursing involves a team of healthcare providers working together to deliver care, rather than one nurse being responsible for a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period. D: Functional nursing divides tasks among different healthcare team members based on their specific skills, which may not provide the same level of continuity and individualized care as primary nursing.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving benzodiazepine intermittently. What is the best way to administer such drugs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale. This approach ensures individualized dosing based on the patient's response, minimizing the risk of over-sedation or under-treatment. It allows for careful monitoring and adjustment of dosage to achieve the desired level of sedation while avoiding adverse effects. A: Administering medication around the clock may lead to unnecessary sedation and increased risk of side effects. B: Administering medications through a feeding tube is not recommended for benzodiazepines as it may affect absorption and increase the risk of complications. C: Giving the highest allowable dose without considering individual response can result in excessive sedation and adverse effects.
Question 9 of 9
The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse educator will determine that teaching arterial pressure monitoring to staff nurses has been effective when the nurse:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because positioning the zero-reference stopcock line level with the hemostatic axis ensures accurate arterial pressure monitoring. Placing the stopcock at the hemostatic axis allows for correct measurement of blood pressure without any errors due to height differences. This positioning helps in obtaining precise and reliable readings. A: Balancing and calibrating the monitoring equipment every 2 hours is important for equipment maintenance but does not directly impact the accuracy of arterial pressure monitoring. C: Ensuring the patient is supine with the head of the bed flat is a standard position for arterial pressure monitoring but does not specifically address the correct positioning of the stopcock. D: Rechecking the location of the hemostatic axis when changing the patient's position is essential for maintaining accuracy, but it does not directly relate to the initial correct positioning of the stopcock.