The examiner is going to inspect and palpate for a hernia. During this exam, the man is instructed to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bear down when the examiner's finger is at the inguinal canal. This action increases intra-abdominal pressure, which helps to push out any potential hernia through the inguinal canal for easier detection. Holding his breath (A) would not facilitate hernia detection. Coughing after insertion (B) is used for rectal exams, not hernia assessment. Relaxing in a supine position (D) is not helpful for hernia examination as it does not aid in hernia protrusion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Minocycline is known to cause vestibular toxicity due to its lipophilicity and ability to accumulate in inner ear structures. 2. Vestibular toxicity can manifest as dizziness, vertigo, and imbalance. 3. Doxycycline, oxytetracycline, and demeclocycline are less likely to cause vestibular toxicity. 4. Doxycycline is commonly used and well-tolerated, oxytetracycline has a different side effect profile, and demeclocycline is primarily associated with nephrotoxicity. Summary: Choice C (Minocycline) is correct due to its propensity for causing vestibular toxicity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are less likely to cause this specific adverse effect.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cefotaxime (C) because it is a third-generation cephalosporin with excellent penetration into the cerebrospinal fluid, making it effective against bacterial meningitis pathogens. Cefotaxime covers a broad spectrum of bacteria commonly causing meningitis, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis. A: Cefuroxime (A) is not the best choice as it has limited activity against some of the common pathogens causing meningitis. B: Cephalexin (B) is a first-generation cephalosporin with poor central nervous system penetration and limited activity against meningitis pathogens. D: Cefdinir (D) is a third-generation cephalosporin but is not the preferred choice for treating bacterial meningitis due to its inferior CNS penetration compared to cefotaxime.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Griseofulvin. Griseofulvin is the drug of choice for ringworm infection because it specifically targets the fungus that causes ringworm. It works by inhibiting fungal cell division, leading to the destruction of the fungus. Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used for systemic fungal infections, not for ringworm. Nystatin is used to treat fungal infections of the skin, mouth, and intestines, but it is not the first-line treatment for ringworm. Neomycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like ringworm. Therefore, Griseofulvin is the most appropriate choice for treating ringworm.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primaquine. Primaquine is used for clinical curative treatment of malaria, particularly for the eradication of hypnozoites in Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale infections. It is not used as a prophylactic drug due to its potential side effects, such as hemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. Choice A (Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine) is a combination used for both treatment and prophylaxis. Choice B (Proguanil) is used for prophylaxis and treatment. Choice D (Mefloquine) is used for both prophylaxis and treatment of malaria.