The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:

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microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: protozoans. Protozoans are eukaryotic organisms that possess both a macronucleus, responsible for general cell functions, and a micronucleus, involved in genetic processes like reproduction. Algae (choice A) typically have a single nucleus, fungi (choice B) lack distinct macronucleus and micronucleus structures, and slime molds (choice D) do not have the same nucleus organization as protozoans. Thus, protozoans are the only group among the choices that exhibit the specific characteristics of having both a macronucleus and a micronucleus.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory tract. The respiratory tract is likely the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens because it is constantly exposed to the external environment and has a large surface area lined with mucous membranes that can trap and facilitate the entry of pathogens. Additionally, the respiratory tract serves as a direct pathway for pathogens to reach the bloodstream and other organs. Skin (choice A) is a physical barrier that can prevent pathogen entry, while the gastrointestinal tract (choice B) has acidic pH and enzymes that can kill many pathogens. Conjunctiva (choice D) is a less common portal of entry compared to the respiratory tract due to its smaller surface area and protective mechanisms such as tears.

Question 3 of 9

Infectious process is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Infectious process involves interactions between macro and microorganisms. 2. It is not limited to manifested diseases or typical symptoms. 3. The process can occur without leading to a full-blown infectious disease. 4. Choice C correctly captures the dynamic relationship between different organisms. Summary: - A: Incorrect - Infectious process is not solely about clinically manifested diseases. - B: Incorrect - Not all infectious diseases have typical symptoms. - D: Incorrect - Ambulatory form is a specific type, not encompassing all infectious processes.

Question 4 of 9

In 8 days after a surgery the patient developed tetanus. The surgeon suspects this condition to be caused by suture material contaminated by tetanus agent. The material is delivered to a bacteriological laboratory. What nutrient medium is required for primary inoculation of the suture material?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kitt-Tarozzi medium. This medium is used for the primary inoculation of suture material suspected of causing tetanus. The rationale is that Kitt-Tarozzi medium contains the necessary nutrients to support the growth of Clostridium tetani, the bacterium responsible for tetanus. This medium is selective and helps in isolating the specific pathogen from the contaminated suture material. Summary of other choices: B: Endo agar is used for the isolation of Gram-negative bacteria from clinical and non-clinical samples. C: Sabouraud agar is used for the isolation of fungi and yeast. D: Egg-yolk salt agar is used for the detection of lipase-producing bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 5 of 9

This drug has a destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is used for treatment and prevention of such diseases as malaria, amebiasis and interstitial disease. What drug is it?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Quinine. Quinine is known for its destructive effect on erythrocytic forms of malarial plasmodia and dysenteric amoebae. It is commonly used for the treatment and prevention of diseases such as malaria, amebiasis, and interstitial disease. Quinine works by interfering with the parasite's ability to break down hemoglobin in red blood cells, ultimately leading to their destruction. Incorrect choices: A: Chingamin - Chingamin is not typically used to treat malaria, amebiasis, or interstitial disease. B: Emetine hydrochloride - Emetine hydrochloride is primarily used for treating amoebic dysentery and is not commonly used for malaria treatment. D: Erythromycin - Erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria or amebiasis.

Question 6 of 9

The basic method for routine mumps diagnosis is;

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolation on cell cultures. This method is the gold standard for routine mumps diagnosis as it involves isolating the virus in cell cultures to confirm the presence of the mumps virus. PCR (choice A) is used for detecting viral RNA, not for routine diagnosis. ELISA (choice C) detects antibodies, not the virus itself. Immunofluorescence method (choice D) is used for visualizing viral antigens but is not as reliable as isolating the virus in cell cultures for diagnosis.

Question 7 of 9

Which of these is not a factor counteracting the mechanisms of the immune system:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyaluronidase synthesis. Hyaluronidase is an enzyme produced by some pathogens to break down hyaluronic acid in the extracellular matrix, aiding their spread. This action does not directly counteract the immune system's mechanisms. Antigenic heterogeneity and mimicry can evade immune recognition. IgA proteases degrade IgA antibodies, impairing mucosal immunity. Therefore, D is the only choice not directly involved in counteracting the immune system.

Question 8 of 9

At a bacteriological laboratory animal skins are analyzed by means of Ascoli precipitaion test. What is detected if the reaction is positive?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Ascoli precipitation test is specifically used to detect anthrax agent antigens. The test involves mixing a patient's serum with a solution containing anthrax antigens, leading to precipitation if the antigens are present. Therefore, a positive reaction in this test indicates the presence of anthrax agent antigens. The other choices (B: Brucellosis agent, C: Anaerobic infection toxin, D: Plague agent) are incorrect because the Ascoli precipitation test is not designed to detect these specific agents or toxins.

Question 9 of 9

Which bacteria are most commonly associated with foodborne illnesses?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria (Salmonella enterica, Escherichia coli, Vibrio cholerae) are commonly associated with foodborne illnesses. Salmonella causes gastroenteritis, E. coli can lead to severe food poisoning, and Vibrio cholerae causes cholera. Therefore, choosing "All of the above" encompasses the most common bacteria linked to foodborne illnesses. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not cover the full range of bacteria typically involved in foodborne illnesses.

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