ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: protozoans. Protozoans are eukaryotic organisms that possess both a macronucleus, responsible for general cell functions, and a micronucleus, involved in genetic processes like reproduction. Algae (choice A) typically have a single nucleus, fungi (choice B) lack distinct macronucleus and micronucleus structures, and slime molds (choice D) do not have the same nucleus organization as protozoans. Thus, protozoans are the only group among the choices that exhibit the specific characteristics of having both a macronucleus and a micronucleus.
Question 2 of 9
What structure allows bacteria to exchange genetic material?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pili. Pili are hair-like appendages on the surface of bacteria that facilitate the exchange of genetic material through a process called conjugation. During conjugation, bacteria can transfer plasmids and other genetic material to neighboring bacteria through pili. This allows for the exchange of beneficial traits like antibiotic resistance. Choice B, Flagella, are involved in bacterial movement and not in genetic material exchange. Choice C, Endospores, are protective structures formed by bacteria in response to harsh conditions, but they are not involved in genetic material exchange. Choice D, Capsules, are protective layers around bacteria that help in adherence to surfaces and evasion of the immune system, but they do not play a role in genetic material exchange.
Question 3 of 9
At a bacteriological laboratory animal skins are analyzed by means of Ascoli precipitaion test. What is detected if the reaction is positive?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Ascoli precipitation test is specifically used to detect anthrax agent antigens. The test involves mixing a patient's serum with a solution containing anthrax antigens, leading to precipitation if the antigens are present. Therefore, a positive reaction in this test indicates the presence of anthrax agent antigens. The other choices (B: Brucellosis agent, C: Anaerobic infection toxin, D: Plague agent) are incorrect because the Ascoli precipitation test is not designed to detect these specific agents or toxins.
Question 4 of 9
The etiological agent of Q-fever is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Coxiella burnetii. Q-fever is caused by the bacterium Coxiella burnetii. It is not caused by viruses like Bunyaviridae or Filoviridae. Rickettsia conorii causes Mediterranean spotted fever, not Q-fever. Coxiella burnetii is the only bacterium among the choices known to be the etiological agent of Q-fever.
Question 5 of 9
A child with fever and swollen lymph nodes had a Gram-stained smear revealing Gram-negative rods with a safety pin appearance. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. This bacterium causes the plague, which presents with fever and swollen lymph nodes. The safety pin appearance on Gram stain is characteristic of Yersinia pestis. B: Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, which presents differently and does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain. C: Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, which does not typically present with the same symptoms as described in the question. D: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, which does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain and does not typically present with fever and swollen lymph nodes.
Question 6 of 9
The process in which bacteria take up foreign DNA from the environment is called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transformation. During transformation, bacteria take up foreign DNA from the environment and incorporate it into their own genetic material. This process allows for genetic diversity and adaptation. Transduction (B) involves transfer of DNA via a virus, conjugation (C) involves direct transfer of DNA between bacterial cells, and binary fission (D) is a form of asexual reproduction in bacteria. Transformation is the only process specifically related to bacteria taking up foreign DNA.
Question 7 of 9
A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.
Question 8 of 9
The optochin sensitivity test demonstrates:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The optochin sensitivity test is used to differentiate Pneumococcal (Streptococcus pneumoniae) from other streptococci. Optochin sensitivity is a characteristic feature of Pneumococcal, as it inhibits its growth. The test involves placing optochin discs on a culture plate and observing the zone of inhibition around the disc for Pneumococcal. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Staphylococci, and Group A streptococci do not exhibit optochin sensitivity, making them incorrect choices. In summary, the optochin sensitivity test is specific to Pneumococcal, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following proteins are encoded by herpesviruses and required for viral DNA replication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: viral DNA polymerase. Herpesviruses require viral DNA polymerase for viral DNA replication. This enzyme is responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands using existing viral DNA as a template. Ribonucleotide reductase (B) is not directly involved in DNA replication but in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides. Neuraminidase (C) is an enzyme found in influenza viruses, not herpesviruses. Thymidine kinase (D) is involved in nucleotide metabolism but is not essential for viral DNA replication in herpesviruses.