The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:

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microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: protozoans. Protozoans are eukaryotic organisms that possess both a macronucleus, responsible for general cell functions, and a micronucleus, involved in genetic processes like reproduction. Algae (choice A) typically have a single nucleus, fungi (choice B) lack distinct macronucleus and micronucleus structures, and slime molds (choice D) do not have the same nucleus organization as protozoans. Thus, protozoans are the only group among the choices that exhibit the specific characteristics of having both a macronucleus and a micronucleus.

Question 2 of 9

A phage in a repressed stage is referred to as a(n)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prophage. In the repressed stage, a phage integrates its DNA into the host cell's chromosome, becoming a prophage. This integration allows the phage to replicate along with the host cell without causing immediate lysis. A: Antiphage is not a term used to describe a phage in a repressed stage. C: Virulent phage refers to a phage that immediately causes lysis of the host cell. D: Latent phage is not a commonly used term in this context.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with chronic diarrhea had stool microscopy revealing flagellated protozoa with two nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Giardia lamblia. Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoan with two nuclei found in the stool. It commonly causes chronic diarrhea. The other choices are incorrect because B: Entamoeba histolytica causes dysentery, not chronic diarrhea; C: Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection, not typically found in stool; D: Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan, not flagellated.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory tract. The respiratory tract is likely the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens because it is constantly exposed to the external environment and has a large surface area lined with mucous membranes that can trap and facilitate the entry of pathogens. Additionally, the respiratory tract serves as a direct pathway for pathogens to reach the bloodstream and other organs. Skin (choice A) is a physical barrier that can prevent pathogen entry, while the gastrointestinal tract (choice B) has acidic pH and enzymes that can kill many pathogens. Conjunctiva (choice D) is a less common portal of entry compared to the respiratory tract due to its smaller surface area and protective mechanisms such as tears.

Question 5 of 9

The optochin sensitivity test demonstrates:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The optochin sensitivity test is used to differentiate Pneumococcal (Streptococcus pneumoniae) from other streptococci. Optochin sensitivity is a characteristic feature of Pneumococcal, as it inhibits its growth. The test involves placing optochin discs on a culture plate and observing the zone of inhibition around the disc for Pneumococcal. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Staphylococci, and Group A streptococci do not exhibit optochin sensitivity, making them incorrect choices. In summary, the optochin sensitivity test is specific to Pneumococcal, making choice B the correct answer.

Question 6 of 9

Which organism produces a toxin that blocks neuromuscular transmission in cholinergic motor neurons:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium produces botulinum toxin, which blocks neuromuscular transmission by inhibiting the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This leads to muscle weakness and paralysis. Shigella dysenteriae (A) causes dysentery but does not affect neuromuscular transmission. Clostridium tetani (B) produces tetanus toxin, which affects inhibitory neurons in the spinal cord, leading to muscle spasm. Corynebacterium diphtheriae (C) produces diphtheria toxin, which affects protein synthesis in cells, not neuromuscular transmission.

Question 7 of 9

Microscopical examination of an infiltrate removed from the submandibular skin area of a 30 y.o. man revealed foci of purulent fluxing surrounded by maturing granulations and mature connective tissue, the pus contains druses consisting of multiple short rod-like elements with one end attached to the homogenous centre. What disease is it?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is supported by the presence of purulent foci with druses consisting of short rod-like elements attached to a homogenous center, which is characteristic of Actinomyces species. Actinomycosis commonly presents with granulation tissue and connective tissue formation. B: Tuberculosis does not typically present with druses containing short rod-like elements. C: Syphilis does not typically present with purulent foci or druses. D: Candidosis does not typically present with the described features of purulent fluxing and druses with short rod-like elements.

Question 8 of 9

Which bacteria are capable of producing exotoxins?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Clostridium tetani, Staphylococcus aureus, and Escherichia coli are all capable of producing exotoxins. Exotoxins are proteins released by bacteria that can cause damage to the host. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin, causing tetanus. Staphylococcus aureus produces toxins like enterotoxin and toxic shock syndrome toxin-1. Escherichia coli can produce Shiga toxin and heat-labile toxin. Therefore, all three bacteria listed can produce exotoxins, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not encompass all the bacteria capable of producing exotoxins.

Question 9 of 9

During the examination of a patient, who had been to the mountain pasture and had been hospitalized in a bad condition with fever, the doctor found out the enlargement of inguinal lymph nodes to 8 cm, which were attached to the surrounding tissues, immovable, the skin above them was red and tender. The microscopic examination of the node revealed acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. What disease is it typical for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. The patient has symptoms of fever, enlarged lymph nodes, red and tender skin, which are indicative of systemic infection. 2. The inguinal lymph nodes in plague become enlarged, tender, and painful, forming buboes. 3. The presence of acute serohemorrhagic inflammation in the lymph node is characteristic of plague. 4. Plague is a zoonotic bacterial infection caused by Yersinia pestis, commonly transmitted through fleas from rodents. 5. Brucellosis, anthrax, and tularemia do not typically present with inguinal lymph node involvement and acute serohemorrhagic inflammation. Summary: - Brucellosis: Usually presents with flu-like symptoms, joint pain, and fever, not inguinal lymph node enlargement. - Anthrax: Presents with skin lesions, respiratory symptoms, or gastrointestinal symptoms, not inguinal lymph node involvement. - Tularemia: Presents with fever, skin ulcers,

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