The establishment and further spreading of an infectious disease within a new population is a process called:

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microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

The establishment and further spreading of an infectious disease within a new population is a process called:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: emergence. The term emergence refers to the process of a new infectious disease appearing and spreading within a population. It signifies the initial introduction and establishment of the disease in the new population. Explanation for other choices: B: Adoption does not accurately describe the process of a disease spreading within a new population. C: Inclusion is not a term commonly used to describe the spread of infectious diseases. D: Appearance is too vague and does not capture the complexity of the process of establishment and spreading of an infectious disease.

Question 2 of 9

Which antibiotics against Parvovirus B19 can be found during the first 10-14 days of the infection:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is associated with the disease known as whooping cough?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: 1. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough. 2. It secretes toxins that damage the respiratory tract. 3. Symptoms include severe coughing fits and the characteristic "whoop" sound. 4. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not whooping cough. 5. Haemophilus influenzae causes various infections, not whooping cough. 6. Staphylococcus aureus causes skin infections, not whooping cough.

Question 4 of 9

A bacteriological analysis revealed spore-forming, Gram-positive rods in a wound smear. The bacteria were motile and produced gas in nutrient broth. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Spore-forming, Gram-positive rods: Characteristics shared by Clostridium and Bacillus. 2. Motile and gas production in nutrient broth: Clostridium perfringens is motile and produces gas, distinguishing it from Bacillus species. 3. Clostridium perfringens causes gas gangrene, correlating with gas production. 4. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, not related to wound infections. 5. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not associated with gas production. 6. Bacillus cereus causes food poisoning, not commonly associated with wound infections. Summary: - A is correct (Clostridium perfringens) due to motility, gas production, and wound infection correlation. - B (Bacillus anthracis) causes anthrax, not wound infections. - C (Clostridium tetani) causes tetanus, not gas production. - D (B

Question 5 of 9

Laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection includes

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cell cultures. Rotavirus diagnosis involves detecting viral antigens in stool samples using cell cultures. Cell cultures allow for the replication of the virus, facilitating its identification. A: Egg inoculation and B: Sensitive laboratory animals are not commonly used for Rotavirus diagnosis due to ethical concerns and practical limitations. C: Ascoli test is used for detecting specific proteins in serum, not for Rotavirus detection in stool samples. In summary, cell cultures are the most appropriate method for laboratory diagnosis of Rotavirus infection due to their ability to support viral replication and antigen detection.

Question 6 of 9

In which of the following GIT infections, the bacteria adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC) adheres to the intestinal wall using bundle-forming pili. 2. EPEC produces toxins that disrupt cell structure and function, leading to diarrhea. 3. Shigella spp. invade intestinal cells, Salmonella spp. invade and multiply within cells, and Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin causing profuse watery diarrhea. Summary: A, C, and D choices are incorrect because they do not specifically adhere to the intestine wall and produce toxins like EPEC does.

Question 7 of 9

A vaginal yeast infection is typically caused by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is the most common cause of vaginal yeast infections due to its ability to overgrow in warm, moist environments like the vagina. It is a type of fungus that naturally resides in the body, but can cause infection when its growth is not regulated. Histoplasma capsulatum (A) causes a lung infection, Aspergillus niger (C) causes fungal sinusitis, and Saccharomyces cerevisiae (D) is a type of yeast used in baking and brewing, not typically associated with vaginal infections.

Question 8 of 9

Decontamination is defined as the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Decontamination is the reduction or removal of unwanted chemical or biological agents to make an area safe. This includes cleaning, disinfecting, or sterilizing to eliminate harmful substances. Choice A is incorrect as decontamination doesn't necessarily involve killing all microorganisms. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on stopping growth, not removing existing contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as it specifically mentions vegetative organisms, which may not cover all types of contaminants that need to be removed during decontamination. Thus, the correct answer is B as it accurately describes the process of decontamination.

Question 9 of 9

A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed-type hypersensitivity. The Mantoux test is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity. This reaction typically occurs 48-72 hours after exposure to an antigen, such as tuberculin in this case. The focal skin hardening and redness that appeared 60 hours after tuberculin introduction align with the timeline and characteristics of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Summary: - Choice A (Delayed-type hypersensitivity): Correct, as explained above. - Choice B (Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves immune complexes and typically presents with tissue damage and inflammation. - Choice C (Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves the activation of complement proteins leading to cell lysis. - Choice D (Immediate hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction, such as in allergies, occurs within minutes to hours of exposure to an antigen and involves IgE-mediated mast

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