ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The effects of different kinds of radiation depend on the following factors:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because intensity, frequency, and thickness of the sample are key factors that determine the effects of different kinds of radiation. Intensity refers to the amount of energy carried by the radiation, frequency indicates the number of waves per unit time, and the thickness of the sample affects the penetration of radiation. These factors directly influence the interactions of radiation with matter, such as ionization and heating effects. A is incorrect because wavelength is not a major factor in determining the effects of radiation. C is incorrect because distance and nature of the sample are not as significant as intensity, frequency, and thickness. D is incorrect because chemical composition and shielding, while important in certain contexts, are not the primary factors affecting the effects of radiation.
Question 2 of 9
Which bacteria are commonly associated with foodborne illnesses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria - Salmonella enterica, Clostridium botulinum, and Escherichia coli - are commonly associated with foodborne illnesses. Salmonella causes gastroenteritis, Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, and E. coli can lead to severe food poisoning. Each bacterium has different mechanisms of causing illness, but all can be transmitted through contaminated food. Choices A, B, and C alone are incorrect because they do not encompass the full spectrum of bacteria commonly linked to foodborne illnesses.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following specific immune mechanisms offer NO protection against infection
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Immunological tolerance to the pathogen Rationale: 1. Immunological tolerance is when the immune system does not mount a response against specific antigens to prevent autoimmunity. 2. In the context of infection, tolerance to the pathogen means the immune system does not recognize the pathogen as a threat and does not initiate a protective response. 3. This lack of response leaves the host vulnerable to infection as there is no specific immune defense mechanism activated against the pathogen. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Opsonic action of antibody - enhances phagocytosis of pathogens B: Viral neutralization by specific antibody - prevents viral entry into host cells D: Neutralization of protein exotoxin - prevents the harmful effects of toxins produced by pathogens.
Question 4 of 9
The most common urinary tract pathogen is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E.coli is the most common urinary tract pathogen due to its ability to adhere to and infect the urinary tract epithelium. It accounts for approximately 80-85% of urinary tract infections. It possesses specific virulence factors that enable it to colonize and cause infection in the urinary tract. Proteus mirabilis (A) is known for causing complicated UTIs, but it is less common than E.coli. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is not a common urinary pathogen. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is more commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections, rather than community-acquired urinary tract infections.
Question 5 of 9
All of the following are symptoms of endocarditis except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: leg swelling. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Symptoms typically include fever, chills, weight loss, and muscle aches due to the body's immune response to the infection. Leg swelling is not a common symptom of endocarditis. It may occur in conditions like heart failure but is not directly associated with endocarditis. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because fever and chills, weight loss, and muscle aches are commonly seen in endocarditis due to the systemic inflammatory response to the infection.
Question 6 of 9
A patient suffering from syphilis was prescribed a drug the action of which based upon disturbed generation of murein leading to death of the causative agent. What drug is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzylpenicillin sodium salt. Benzylpenicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic that inhibits the synthesis of bacterial cell walls by disrupting the formation of murein (peptidoglycan), leading to bacterial cell death. This mechanism specifically targets the causative agent of syphilis, Treponema pallidum. - Choice B: Bijochinol is not a known drug used to treat syphilis. - Choice C: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial DNA replication and is not the first-line treatment for syphilis. - Choice D: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that interferes with bacterial protein synthesis and is commonly used to treat other infections but is not the preferred treatment for syphilis.
Question 7 of 9
Which one of the following is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism for the development of an infectious disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Overcrowding. Overcrowding can facilitate the spread of infectious diseases due to increased contact between individuals, making it easier for pathogens to transmit from one person to another. This is a risk factor on the part of the macroorganism as it directly impacts the likelihood of disease transmission. Environmental pollution (B) may impact overall health but is not a direct risk factor for infectious diseases. Physical fatigue (C) weakens the immune system but is not a direct facilitator of disease transmission. Ionizing radiation (D) can cause cellular damage but is not a typical risk factor for infectious diseases.
Question 8 of 9
Microorganisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures (between 25° C and 40° C) are called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: mesophiles. Mesophiles are microorganisms that thrive in moderate temperatures, typically between 25°C and 40°C. This temperature range is ideal for their growth and reproduction. Thermophiles (A) prefer high temperatures, psychrophiles (B) thrive in cold temperatures, and psychrotrophs (D) can grow at refrigeration temperatures but have an optimal range above 20°C. Therefore, the mesophiles are the best fit for organisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures.
Question 9 of 9
The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is as follows: 1. Adsorption: Virus attaches to host cell. 2. Penetration: Virus enters host cell. 3. Uncoating: Viral genetic material is released. 4. Replication: Viral genetic material replicates. 5. Assembly: New viral particles are assembled. 6. Release: New viral particles are released from the host cell. Choice A is correct as it follows the correct chronological order of virus multiplication stages. Choice B is incorrect as it has the wrong order of penetration and adsorption. Choice C is incorrect as it has the wrong order of adsorption, uncoating, and penetration. Choice D is incorrect as it has the wrong order of penetration and uncoating.