ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment 9th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The earliest clinical manifestation of diabetic nephropathy is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Microalbuminuria. In diabetic nephropathy, the earliest clinical manifestation is the presence of microalbuminuria, which indicates early kidney damage. This occurs before significant changes in BUN, creatinine, or glomerular filtration rate are observed. Microalbuminuria is a key indicator for monitoring and early intervention in diabetic nephropathy. Incorrect Options: A: An elevation in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) - BUN levels may rise in later stages of kidney damage. B: An elevation in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (CR) - These markers typically increase as kidney function declines, not in the early stages. C: A decreased glomerular filtration rate - GFR decreases as kidney function worsens, not typically an early sign in diabetic nephropathy.
Question 2 of 5
Where should the uterine fundus be palpable at 12 weeks?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 12 weeks of gestation, the uterine fundus should be palpable at the level of the symphysis pubis. This is because the uterus rises approximately 1 cm above the symphysis pubis each week during the first trimester. By 12 weeks, it should be palpable at this level. Choice A (At the level of the umbilicus) is incorrect because the fundus is not expected to reach the level of the umbilicus until around 20 weeks. Choice C (Midway between the symphysis and umbilicus) is incorrect as this would typically occur around 16-18 weeks. Choice D (Below the symphysis pubis) is also incorrect because by 12 weeks, the fundus should have risen above the symphysis pubis.
Question 3 of 5
A 50-year-old male has a non-tender, enlarged scrotum. The nurse practitioner suspects which of the following conditions:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrocele. A hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac surrounding the testicle, causing scrotal enlargement without tenderness. Orchitis (A) is inflammation of the testicle, presenting with pain and tenderness. Epididymitis (B) is inflammation of the epididymis, also causing tenderness. Prostatitis (D) involves inflammation of the prostate gland, not related to scrotal enlargement. In this case, the lack of tenderness and presence of scrotal enlargement point towards a hydrocele as the likely condition.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with bulimia is likely to be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Of average weight. Patients with bulimia often maintain a normal weight or fluctuate between weight extremes due to their binge-eating and compensatory behaviors. They may engage in purging to counteract the effects of binge eating, preventing significant weight gain. Choice A is incorrect as bulimia is not typically associated with being very overweight. Choice B is incorrect as individuals with bulimia can have a normal or slightly underweight body weight. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with bulimia are often preoccupied with weight and body image.
Question 5 of 5
A 44-year-old male presents for an employment physical and is concerned about testing positive for amphetamines on a drug screen. His current medication list includes metformin, lisinopril, glyburide, and bupropion. The most likely medication cause for a false positive result for amphetamines would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Bupropion. Bupropion is known to potentially cause false-positive results for amphetamines on drug screens due to its structural similarity to amphetamines. Bupropion is a medication commonly used to treat depression and aid in smoking cessation. Metformin (A), Lisinopril (B), and Glyburide (C) are not known to cause false positives for amphetamines. Metformin is used to treat diabetes, Lisinopril is used for hypertension, and Glyburide is used for diabetes. Therefore, the most likely medication cause for a false positive result for amphetamines in this case would be bupropion.