The drug that will most likely be used for treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED) is

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Pharmacology Assessment 1 ATI Capstone Questions

Question 1 of 9

The drug that will most likely be used for treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED) is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra), a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, treats erectile dysfunction (ED) by enhancing penile blood flow, a first-line therapy. Leuprolide suppresses testosterone for prostate cancer, worsening ED. Finasteride and tamsulosin, for BPH, don't target ED and may cause it. Sildenafil's vascular action offers rapid efficacy, making it the go-to choice.

Question 2 of 9

Which drug is most likely to be ordered for the client with herpes simplex virus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a viral infection requiring antiviral therapy, and acyclovir (Zovirax) is the gold-standard treatment due to its specific action against herpesviruses. It inhibits viral DNA replication, reducing symptom duration and severity, making it the most likely choice (A). Zidovudine targets HIV, a retrovirus, not HSV, and is irrelevant here. Nystatin is an antifungal, ineffective against viruses. Metronidazole treats bacterial and protozoal infections, not viral ones. Acyclovir's specificity and efficacy for HSV, supported by clinical guidelines, make it the priority drug. The nurse must recognize this distinction to ensure appropriate therapy, as misidentification could delay recovery or worsen outcomes. Choice A stands out as the only antiviral tailored to HSV's pathophysiology, ensuring targeted treatment.

Question 3 of 9

A 29-year-old male patient is being treated with an antidepressant drug, and his mood is improving. However, he complains of feeling 'jittery' and agitated at times, and if he takes his medication in the afternoon he finds it difficult to get to sleep at night. He seems to have lost weight during the 6 months that he has been taking the drug. He has been warned not to take other drugs without consultation because severe reactions have occurred with opioid analgesics including meperidine. This patient is probably taking

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Paroxetine, an SSRI, treats depression by inhibiting serotonin reuptake, often improving mood. Its side effects include agitation and insomnia (especially if taken late), due to serotonin's stimulating effects, and weight loss can occur initially, unlike TCAs which cause gain. A critical clue is the warning against opioids like meperidine: SSRIs can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with MAOIs or other serotonergic drugs, though meperidine's risk is notable in polypharmacy. Alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, sedates rather than agitates. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic, causes sedation and weight gain. Amitriptyline, a TCA, is sedating and linked to weight gain, not loss. Trazodone promotes sleep. Paroxetine's profile—activation, insomnia, weight loss, and drug interaction risks—matches the patient's experience.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for a 55-year-old patient receiving metoprolol (Lopressor). What statement by the patient would lead the nurse to believe that he needs additional instruction?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: OTC medications can interact to increase or decrease the effects of antiadrenergic drugs. Antacids decrease the effects of beta-adrenergic blocking drugs. Decreased antihypertensive effects result when taken with ibuprofen. Other options reflect correct statements and would not indicate that the patient would need further instruction. The nurse should educate the patient about potential drug interactions and the importance of consulting their healthcare provider before taking OTC medications.

Question 5 of 9

A 39-year-old man with chronic allergic rhinitis and nasal congestion takes an over-the-counter nasal spray containing oxymetazoline. Over the next few days, he has significant improvement in his symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this agent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Oxymetazoline treats nasal congestion in allergic rhinitis by acting as an α-adrenergic agonist. Option , increased nasal blood flow, is incorrect-vasoconstriction reduces flow. Option , increased arterial pressure, doesn't directly relieve congestion. Option , receptor stimulation on nasal vasculature, is correct-oxymetazoline stimulates α-receptors, causing vasoconstriction, shrinking swollen mucosa, and improving airflow. Option , transmembrane conductance change, is unrelated to its action. Option (E), understimulation, contradicts its agonist role. This vasoconstrictive effect rapidly alleviates congestion, explaining the symptom improvement. Unlike antihistamines or steroids, oxymetazoline targets vascular tone, not inflammation or histamine, making it ideal for quick relief in rhinitis. Prolonged use risks rebound congestion, but the question focuses on initial efficacy, where receptor-mediated vasoconstriction is key.

Question 6 of 9

Which drug combination is recommended for chronic hepatitis C infection?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chronic hepatitis C (HCV) treatment targets viral clearance. Pegylated interferon alfa boosts immunity, lamivudine treats HBV, not HCV, so that's incorrect. Adefovir also targets HBV, not HCV. Pegylated interferon alfa with ribavirin, an antiviral, is a historical standard for HCV, enhancing sustained virologic response across genotypes, the recommended combo. Adefovir/lamivudine suits HBV, oseltamivir/zanamivir influenza. Ribavirin's synergy with interferon was key before direct-acting antivirals, effective for this condition.

Question 7 of 9

What is the unlabeled use for

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The unlabeled use for a medication refers to a use that is not approved by regulatory agencies but has shown effectiveness in clinical practice. In this case, the unlabeled use for a medication might be to treat PTSD (Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder). While the medication may not be specifically indicated for this condition, it may have shown benefits in managing the symptoms of PTSD based on clinical experience or research studies. It is important to note that using a medication for an unlabeled use should always be done under the supervision of a healthcare professional.

Question 8 of 9

A patient with , should stop taking NSAIDS

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Patients with peptic ulcers should stop taking NSAIDs (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) because NSAIDs can worsen the condition and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding and ulcer perforation. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which normally helps protect the stomach lining. Therefore, patients with peptic ulcers should avoid NSAIDs and consult their healthcare provider for alternative pain management options.

Question 9 of 9

When monitoring a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), the nurse notes that which drug is most likely to cause a severe interaction with the diuretic?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) is a diuretic that can cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Digitalis (digoxin) is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and its therapeutic effect is dependent on adequate potassium levels. If a patient taking hydrochlorothiazide becomes hypokalemic and then takes digitalis, it can lead to an increased risk of digitalis toxicity. This severe interaction highlights the importance of monitoring potassium levels and potential drug interactions when patients are taking hydrochlorothiazide. Potassium supplements would help counteract the potassium loss caused by hydrochlorothiazide and minimize the risk of interactions with digitalis.

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