ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 1 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
The drug that will most likely be used for treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED) is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra), a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, treats erectile dysfunction (ED) by enhancing penile blood flow, a first-line therapy. Leuprolide suppresses testosterone for prostate cancer, worsening ED. Finasteride and tamsulosin, for BPH, don't target ED and may cause it. Sildenafil's vascular action offers rapid efficacy, making it the go-to choice.
Question 2 of 5
Benzodiazepines are often the drug of choice for managing anxiety and insomnia. Which statement best explains why?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 39-year-old man with chronic allergic rhinitis and nasal congestion takes an over-the-counter nasal spray containing oxymetazoline. Over the next few days, he has significant improvement in his symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this agent?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oxymetazoline treats nasal congestion in allergic rhinitis by acting as an α-adrenergic agonist. Option , increased nasal blood flow, is incorrect-vasoconstriction reduces flow. Option , increased arterial pressure, doesn't directly relieve congestion. Option , receptor stimulation on nasal vasculature, is correct-oxymetazoline stimulates α-receptors, causing vasoconstriction, shrinking swollen mucosa, and improving airflow. Option , transmembrane conductance change, is unrelated to its action. Option (E), understimulation, contradicts its agonist role. This vasoconstrictive effect rapidly alleviates congestion, explaining the symptom improvement. Unlike antihistamines or steroids, oxymetazoline targets vascular tone, not inflammation or histamine, making it ideal for quick relief in rhinitis. Prolonged use risks rebound congestion, but the question focuses on initial efficacy, where receptor-mediated vasoconstriction is key.
Question 4 of 5
A 34-year-old man with allergic rhinitis presents to his primary care physician for treatment. He is prescribed diphenhydramine and develops dry eyes and mouth within 2 days. His symptoms of rhinitis are approximately 75% better. He calls his physician asking what he should do. The most appropriate management for this patient is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
You have been monitoring a 62-year-old man who is a retired small business owner over the past year and have noted a slowly changing intraocular pressure bilaterally. You have started him on physostigmine to treat his open-angle glaucoma. How does physostigmine affect intraocular pressure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Physostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, lowers IOP in glaucoma by increasing aqueous outflow . It contracts the ciliary muscle, opening the trabecular meshwork. Secretion or synthesis reduction isn't its mechanism. Raising pressure (D, E) contradicts its use. This aids drainage in open-angle glaucoma.