ATI RN
CNS Stimulants Drugs Pharmacology Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
The drug of choice in the treatment of organophosphorus poisoning is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the treatment of organophosphorus poisoning, the drug of choice is Atropine (Option B). Atropine is a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors, which helps counteract the excessive stimulation caused by the buildup of acetylcholine due to organophosphate poisoning. Atropine blocks the effects of acetylcholine in the parasympathetic nervous system, helping to reduce symptoms like excessive salivation, lacrimation, bronchoconstriction, and bradycardia. Neostigmine (Option A) is a cholinesterase inhibitor that could worsen organophosphate poisoning by further increasing acetylcholine levels. Pralidoxime (Option C) is used as an antidote to reactivate acetylcholinesterase enzyme but is not the first-line treatment for organophosphate poisoning. Acetylcholine (Option D) is not used as a treatment for organophosphorus poisoning due to its rapid degradation in the body and inability to counteract the effects of excess acetylcholine. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of drugs used in toxicology is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide timely and effective treatments in emergency situations. Knowing the specific antidotes and their mechanisms of action can significantly impact patient outcomes in cases of poisoning. This knowledge is essential for healthcare students and professionals working in fields such as emergency medicine, toxicology, and pharmacology.
Question 2 of 5
Methanol is toxic to the optic nerve. It is because of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of CNS stimulants drugs pharmacology, understanding the toxic effects of methanol on the optic nerve is crucial. The correct answer to the question is option A) Methanol itself. Methanol is metabolized in the body to formaldehyde and formic acid, which are highly toxic compounds. When methanol is ingested, it is first metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase to formaldehyde, which is further metabolized to formic acid by aldehyde dehydrogenase. Formic acid is responsible for the optic nerve damage seen in methanol poisoning. Option B) Oxidative metabolites of methanol is incorrect because the toxic effects on the optic nerve are primarily due to the direct toxic effects of methanol metabolites, particularly formic acid, rather than oxidative metabolites. Option C) Conjugated product of methanol is incorrect because the toxicity of methanol is not related to its conjugated products but rather to the toxic metabolites formed during its metabolism. Option D) Idiosyncratic reaction is incorrect because the toxic effects of methanol on the optic nerve are well understood and are a direct result of the toxic metabolites formed during its metabolism, rather than being an unpredictable or idiosyncratic reaction. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the mechanisms of toxicity of different substances, especially in the context of pharmacology. By knowing how methanol is metabolized and the specific toxic effects it can have on the optic nerve, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage cases of methanol poisoning, ultimately improving patient outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
Norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft can activate presynaptic alpha 2 receptors which results in
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of CNS stimulants pharmacology, understanding the effects of norepinephrine activation on presynaptic alpha 2 receptors is crucial. The correct answer, option C, states that this activation leads to further inhibition of exocytotic release of norepinephrine. This is because when norepinephrine binds to presynaptic alpha 2 receptors, it triggers a negative feedback mechanism that inhibits further release of norepinephrine, acting as a regulatory mechanism to prevent excessive stimulation. Option A, increased release of exocytotic norepinephrine, is incorrect because the activation of alpha 2 receptors actually inhibits release, rather than increasing it. Option B, displacement of norepinephrine from the storage site, is incorrect as alpha 2 receptor activation does not affect the storage of norepinephrine. Option D, increased synthesis of norepinephrine, is also incorrect as alpha 2 receptor activation does not directly impact the synthesis process. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the intricate regulatory mechanisms involved in neurotransmitter release and how pharmacological agents can modulate these processes. It reinforces the concept that activation of certain receptors can lead to feedback mechanisms that regulate neurotransmitter levels, ultimately influencing neuronal signaling and physiological responses.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents has a short duration of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this CNS Stimulants Drugs Pharmacology Quiz, the correct answer is B) Mivacurium because it is a neuromuscular blocking agent with a short duration of action. Mivacurium is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant that is rapidly metabolized by plasma cholinesterase, leading to a shorter duration of action compared to other neuromuscular blocking agents. A) Atracurium is incorrect because it has an intermediate duration of action due to its metabolism via Hofmann elimination and ester hydrolysis. C) Pancuronium is incorrect as it has a longer duration of action compared to Mivacurium, making it unsuitable for procedures requiring a short-acting muscle relaxant. D) Doxacurium is also incorrect as it has a longer duration of action similar to Pancuronium, and it is primarily eliminated by hepatic metabolism. Understanding the duration of action of different neuromuscular blocking agents is crucial in clinical practice to select the most appropriate agent based on the desired length of muscle relaxation needed for a specific procedure. It is essential for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about the pharmacokinetic properties of these drugs to ensure safe and effective patient care during surgeries and other medical interventions.
Question 5 of 5
In the GI tract, enterochromaffin cells are maximum in
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, enterochromaffin cells are predominantly found in the stomach. These cells are specialized enteroendocrine cells that play a crucial role in the regulation of gut motility, secretion, and sensory functions. They contain serotonin, a neurotransmitter that acts locally in the gut to modulate various GI functions. The correct answer, A) Stomach, is supported by the fact that enterochromaffin cells are particularly abundant in the gastric mucosa. Serotonin released by these cells in the stomach can influence gastric motility, secretion, and sensitivity to stimuli. Option B) Duodenum, Option C) Jejunum, and Option D) Colon are incorrect because enterochromaffin cells are not as abundant in these regions compared to the stomach. While enterochromaffin cells are present throughout the GI tract, their highest concentrations are typically found in the stomach. Understanding the distribution of enterochromaffin cells in the GI tract is essential in pharmacology as drugs targeting serotonin receptors on these cells can have significant effects on GI function. This knowledge is particularly relevant when studying the pharmacology of CNS stimulants, as they can potentially impact gut motility and function through interactions with enterochromaffin cells. In summary, recognizing the localization of enterochromaffin cells in the stomach is important for understanding their role in GI physiology and pharmacology. This knowledge can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when managing conditions related to GI function and when considering the effects of medications on the gut.