The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. In eclampsia, magnesium sulphate is the drug of choice because it helps prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular irritability and blocking peripheral neuromuscular transmission. It also has vasodilatory effects, improving uteroplacental blood flow. Phenobarbitone (A) is not recommended due to its sedative effects. Calcium gluconate (B) is used to treat hyperkalemia, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used for metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia. In summary, magnesium sulphate is preferred for its efficacy in preventing and managing seizures in eclampsia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Compound. When a hand or foot lies alongside the presenting part during childbirth, it is called a compound presentation. This can be a complication as it increases the risk of the presenting part not fitting through the birth canal properly. A: Footling presentation occurs when the baby's foot or feet are the first to emerge from the birth canal. B: Transverse presentation is when the baby is lying sideways in the uterus. D: Cephalic presentation is the ideal position for vaginal delivery, with the baby's head down and ready to be born.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement about shoulder dystocia is A: It’s an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head. This is accurate as shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior shoulder becomes impacted behind the maternal pubic symphysis. This can lead to difficulty delivering the shoulders after the head is delivered. B is incorrect as shoulder dystocia involves the anterior shoulder, not the posterior. C is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is not related to compound presentation. D is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is an obstetric emergency that requires prompt intervention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because neglected obstructed labor and high parity are well-established predisposing factors to uterine rupture. Neglected obstructed labor can cause prolonged pressure on the uterus, leading to weakening and potential rupture. High parity (having given birth multiple times) can also increase the risk of uterine rupture due to repeated stretching and strain on the uterine muscles. A, B, and D are incorrect because nulliparity (never given birth), breech presentation, multiple pregnancy, and obstetric maneuvers are not as strongly associated with uterine rupture as neglected obstructed labor and high parity. These factors may increase the risk of other complications during childbirth but are not primary predisposing factors for uterine rupture.