The drug of choice for partial seizures is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbamazepine. This drug is the drug of choice for partial seizures due to its efficacy in controlling focal seizures and its broad spectrum of activity. Carbamazepine works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, reducing neuronal excitability. Rationale: - Carbamazepine is a common first-line treatment for partial seizures. - It is effective in controlling focal seizures. - It has a broad spectrum of activity against various types of seizures. - Carbamazepine's mechanism of action involves blocking sodium channels, reducing neuronal excitability. Summary of other choices: - B: Ethosuximide is primarily used for absence seizures, not partial seizures. - C: Diazepam is a short-acting benzodiazepine used for acute seizure management, not as a primary treatment for partial seizures. - D: Lamotrigine is more commonly used for generalized seizures and may not be as effective for controlling partial seizures.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Methadone causes tolerance and physical dependence more slowly than morphine due to its longer half-life. 2. Methadone is more effective orally as it has high bioavailability compared to morphine. 3. Withdrawal from methadone is less severe but more prolonged, making it easier to taper off. 4. Therefore, all the statements are true, making option D the correct answer. Summary: A. Incorrect - Methadone causes tolerance and physical dependence more slowly than morphine. B. Incorrect - Methadone is more effective orally compared to morphine. C. Incorrect - Withdrawal from methadone is less severe but more prolonged.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Haloperidol. Haloperidol is considered a typical antipsychotic drug due to its high affinity for dopamine D2 receptors and its strong dopamine-blocking effects. Typical antipsychotics primarily target dopamine receptors, leading to the alleviation of positive symptoms of psychosis. Clozapine (A), Quetiapine (B), and Olanzapine (D) are atypical antipsychotics, as they target multiple neurotransmitter systems, including serotonin and dopamine. They are preferred for their reduced risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to typical antipsychotics.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants inhibit the reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain, making them mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitors. This mechanism contributes to their antidepressant effects. Options A and C are incorrect as tricyclic antidepressants are not highly selective for either serotonin or norepinephrine reuptake. Option B is incorrect as tricyclic antidepressants are not monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Thus, the correct answer is D due to the dual mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants on norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Piracetam. Piracetam is a CNS stimulant known for improving cognitive function and memory, making it beneficial in pediatric medicine for enhancing learning abilities and school performance. It does not have the same potential for abuse or addiction as amphetamines (choice D). Meridil (choice A) and Bemegride (choice C) are not commonly used CNS stimulants in pediatric medicine and do not have the same cognitive-enhancing effects as Piracetam.