The drug of choice for monilial diarrhea is: *

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nystatin. Nystatin is the drug of choice for monilial diarrhea because it is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida species causing the infection in the gastrointestinal tract. It is not absorbed systemically, making it suitable for gastrointestinal infections. Amphothericin B (A) is used for systemic fungal infections. Ketoconazole (C) and Itraconazole (D) are not typically used for gastrointestinal Candida infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Dapsone is a known cause of hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency due to oxidative stress. 2. Dapsone triggers the release of reactive oxygen species, leading to hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals. 3. Rifampicin and clofazimine do not have a direct association with hemolysis in G6PD deficiency. 4. Option D is incorrect as dapsone is a well-established drug associated with hemolysis in G6PD-deficient individuals.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Clindamycin. Clindamycin is associated with a high incidence of antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis due to its strong impact on disrupting the normal gut flora, leading to overgrowth of Clostridium difficile. This bacterium can produce toxins causing inflammation and pseudomembrane formation in the colon. Ampicillin (A) can also cause C. difficile infection, but clindamycin is more strongly associated. Chloramphenicol (B) and vancomycin (C) are less commonly associated with pseudomembranous enterocolitis compared to clindamycin.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Nevirapine is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatoxicity, especially within the first few weeks of treatment initiation. The recommended CD4 cell count thresholds for starting Nevirapine are lower in women compared to men to minimize this risk. In this case, women with CD4 cell counts >250 cells/mm3 and men with CD4 cell counts >450 cells/mm3 should not initiate Nevirapine due to the higher likelihood of developing hepatoxicity. A is incorrect because the CD4 cell count thresholds are too high for both women and men. B is incorrect as it sets the threshold for women too high. C is incorrect because the threshold for men is too high. Thus, D is the most appropriate choice based on the recommended guidelines to minimize the risk of severe hepatoxicity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Procaine penicillin. Procaine penicillin is a long-acting penicillin formulation due to the addition of procaine, which slows down the release of penicillin into the bloodstream. This results in a prolonged duration of action compared to benzathine, sodium, and potassium penicillin. Benzathine penicillin is also long-acting but primarily used for prevention, not treatment. Sodium and potassium penicillin are not formulated for extended action, making them less suitable for long-term treatment. Therefore, D is the best choice for long-lasting penicillin therapy.