The drug of choice for migraine in a 7-year-old with mild headachand infrequent occurrence is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the first-line treatment for mild, infrequent pediatric migraines, per AAP, due to safety and efficacy. Sumatriptan targets severe migraines, not mild, and is less studied in young children. Aspirin risks Reye syndrome in kids. Chlorpromazine and ergotamine are for acute severe attacks or adults. Acetaminophens tolerability makes A the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Babinski reflex disappears by 12-18 months , per pediatric norms, as corticospinal tracts myelinate, suppressing this primitive response. Present at birth, dorsiflexion and fanning indicate immature upper motor neurons; persistence beyond 18 months suggests pathology (e.g., CP). 6-12 months is early; 18-24 or later overestimatnormal range. Developmental neurology confirms 12-18 months as typical, making B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cranial nervassess brainstem integrity, per neurologic exams, as CN III-XII nuclei reside there, testing eye movements, facial symmetry, and swallowing. Mental status reflects cortex; motor and sensory systems span multiple levels; gait involvcerebellum/spinal cord. Brainstem lesions (e.g., stroke) disrupt cranial nerve function, making B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Muscle power moving against gravity but not resistance is graded 3 , per Medical Research Council scale. Grade 1 is trace contraction; 2 movwithout gravity; 4 resists some resistance; 5 full strength. Grade 3s definition fits, making C the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Fungal meningitis fits fever, headache, meningeal signs, lymphocytic CSF pleocytosis, and low glucose in a steroid-treated child, per IDSA. Steroids predispose to fungi (e.g., Candida) by immunosuppression. Bacterial typically shows neutrophils; abscess focal signs; viral normal glucose. Fungal risk make B the correct answer.