The drug most often used in fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: metronidazole. Metronidazole is specifically effective against protozoan infections due to its ability to target and disrupt the DNA of the parasites. It is commonly used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and giardiasis that affect the reproductive system. Ampicillin (A) and tetracycline (B) are antibiotics that target bacteria, not protozoa. Ciprofloxacin (C) is also an antibiotic that is effective against certain bacterial infections but not protozoan infections. Therefore, metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Smooth S colonies. Bacteria with long O-specific chains are known as smooth strains, and when cultured on solid growth media, they form smooth colonies due to the presence of the O antigen. This gives them a glossy appearance. Rough R colonies (Choice B) lack O antigen and appear rough. Mucoid -M colonies (Choice C) are associated with capsules, not O-specific chains. H colonies (Choice D) are not relevant to the O-specific chains. Smooth S colonies are the characteristic phenotype of bacteria with long O-specific chains when cultured on solid media.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serological. Serological testing involves analyzing blood samples for specific antibodies produced in response to the pertussis infection. This method can detect past infections by identifying the presence of antibodies against the pertussis bacteria in the blood. In this case, since the doctor suspects pertussis infection in both children, serological testing can confirm if they have been exposed to the bacteria. Summary: B: Biological testing does not specifically target pertussis antibodies in the blood. C: Bacteriological testing involves culturing bacteria from samples, which may not be as sensitive for retrospective diagnosis. D: Molecular biological testing focuses on genetic material of the bacteria, which may not provide direct evidence of past infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. The presence of cysts with four nuclei is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan parasite causing amoebic dysentery. It forms cysts with four nuclei before maturing into trophozoites. Balantidium coli (B) is a ciliated protozoan causing balantidiasis, not known for four-nuclei cysts. Giardia lamblia (C) forms cysts with two nuclei, causing giardiasis. Trichomonas hominis (D) is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human colon, not associated with four-nuclei cysts.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacteria is known for causing pneumonia due to its ability to infect the lungs and cause inflammation leading to pneumonia symptoms. It is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) causes tuberculosis, not pneumonia. Escherichia coli (C) is associated with urinary tract infections and gastrointestinal infections, not pneumonia. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is known to cause infections in immunocompromised individuals but is not a common cause of pneumonia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. Vibrio cholerae is the causative agent of cholera, which presents with severe watery diarrhea leading to dehydration. The characteristic comma-shaped (curved rod) appearance of Gram-negative bacteria is typical of Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium produces the cholera toxin, leading to the excessive secretion of fluid into the intestines. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever with symptoms like sustained fever, not watery diarrhea. Shigella dysenteriae causes bloody diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Escherichia coli can cause various types of infections, but typically not severe watery diarrhea like cholera.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Negri bodies are not associated with measles but with rabies. Step 1: Measles is a childhood infection with a rash (A). Step 2: Koplik spots are small white spots on a red base found inside the mouth and are characteristic of measles (B). Step 3: Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in neurons infected with rabies virus, not measles (C). Step 4: Prophylaxis for measles is through the MMR vaccine, which is a live attenuated vaccine (D). Therefore, choice C is incorrect as it does not pertain to measles.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: It is non-motile and non-spore forming. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is motile due to its flagella and is non-spore forming. A is correct because it is a Gram-negative bacterium, and B is correct as it is oxidase-positive. D is incorrect because C is not true.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: 1. Vaccination introduces antigens to stimulate immune response. 2. T and B cells are activated to produce memory cells for long-lasting protection. 3. Active immunity develops over time post-vaccination. 4. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the process and outcomes. 5. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the process of active immunity. 6. Choice C is incorrect as the process of active immunity is consistent regardless of the situation. 7. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the mechanism and characteristics of artificial active immunity.