The drug can cause ototoxicity:

Questions 52

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Cardiovascular System Drugs Classification Questions

Question 1 of 5

The drug can cause ototoxicity:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause ototoxicity by affecting the inner ear. It can lead to hearing loss or tinnitus. Acetazolamide (A) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, not associated with ototoxicity. Hydrochlorothiazide (C) and Amiloride (D) are not known to cause ototoxicity.

Question 2 of 5

Tick the unwanted effects of nitrofuranes:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed effects - nausea, vomiting, allergic reactions, and hemolytic anemia - are unwanted effects associated with nitrofuranes. Nitrofuranes are known to cause gastrointestinal upset (nausea, vomiting), allergic reactions in some individuals, and hemolytic anemia, a condition where red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced. Therefore, all of the above effects are unwanted and can be caused by nitrofuranes. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because they do not encompass all the possible unwanted effects associated with nitrofuranes.

Question 3 of 5

All of the following antiviral drugs are antiretroviral agents, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acyclovir. Acyclovir is not an antiretroviral agent, as it is primarily used to treat herpes virus infections. Zidovudine, Zalcitabine, and Didanozine are all antiretroviral drugs used specifically to treat HIV infections. These drugs work by inhibiting the replication of the HIV virus. Acyclovir, on the other hand, works by inhibiting the replication of herpes viruses. Therefore, Acyclovir does not target HIV and is not classified as an antiretroviral agent.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following antianginal drugs would be appropriate for this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Isosorbide mononitrate is a nitrate that dilates blood vessels, reducing cardiac workload. Step 2: Patient likely has angina due to coronary artery disease, so vasodilation helps improve blood flow to heart. Step 3: Diltiazem, verapamil, and nifedipine are calcium channel blockers that may lower blood pressure and heart rate, but not specifically indicated for angina. Step 4: Diltiazem and verapamil can even worsen angina by reducing heart rate and contractility. Step 5: Nifedipine primarily dilates peripheral arteries and is not as effective for coronary artery vasodilation in angina.

Question 5 of 5

A 55-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled essential hypertension had recently added atenolol to her therapeutic regimen. Which of the following was most likely a primary mechanism that mediated the antihypertensive effect of atenolol in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibition of epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that primarily works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. This results in reduced heart rate, cardiac output, and renin release, leading to decreased blood pressure. A: Dilation of large veins is not the primary mechanism of action of atenolol. It primarily affects the heart and vasculature by blocking beta-receptors. C: While atenolol does block beta receptors in the vascular wall, the primary mechanism of antihypertensive effect is through inhibition of epinephrine release. D: Atenolol does not directly affect sympathetic outflow from the vasomotor area. The main mechanism is through blocking beta-receptors and reducing catecholamine release.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions