ATI RN
Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Practice Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
The drug acts by affecting the tubular fluid composition in a non-receptor mediated fashion:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Mannitol (Osmitrol). Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that acts by affecting tubular fluid composition in a non-receptor mediated fashion. It exerts its diuretic effect by creating an osmotic gradient that inhibits water reabsorption in the proximal tubule and loop of Henle. Now let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting the Na+/K+/2Cl- co-transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. It exerts its effect through a receptor-mediated mechanism. B) Acetazolamide (Diamox) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that acts in the proximal convoluted tubule to prevent HCO3- reabsorption. It also works through a receptor-mediated mechanism. C) Triamterene (Dyrenium) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct by blocking the epithelial sodium channel. This action is receptor-mediated. Educationally, understanding the different mechanisms of action of diuretics is crucial in pharmacology. Knowing how each drug affects tubular fluid composition helps in selecting the appropriate diuretic based on the clinical scenario, patient condition, and desired outcome. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding drug therapy for cardiovascular conditions.
Question 2 of 5
Tick the antimalarial drug belonging to 8-aminoquinoline derivatives:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question about antimalarial drugs belonging to 8-aminoquinoline derivatives, the correct answer is C) Primaquine. Primaquine is classified as an 8-aminoquinoline derivative and is specifically used for the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic commonly used for treating various bacterial infections, not malaria caused by Plasmodium species sensitive to 8-aminoquinolines. B) Quinidine is an antiarrhythmic agent used to treat certain heart rhythm disorders, not malaria. D) Chloroquine is also an antimalarial drug, but it belongs to the 4-aminoquinoline class, not the 8-aminoquinoline derivatives as specified in the question. Educational context: Understanding the classification of antimalarial drugs is crucial in pharmacology to ensure the appropriate selection of medications for treating specific types of malaria infections. Knowing the distinct characteristics of different drug classes helps healthcare providers make effective and safe treatment decisions for patients with malaria.
Question 3 of 5
Tick the anticancer alkylating drug, a derivative of chloroethylamine:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) Cyclophosphamide. Cyclophosphamide is an anticancer alkylating drug that is a derivative of chloroethylamine. Alkylating agents work by attaching alkyl groups to DNA, which prevents cell division and ultimately leads to cell death. Cyclophosphamide is commonly used in the treatment of various cancers, including leukemia, lymphoma, and solid tumors. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Methotrexate: Methotrexate is not an alkylating agent. It is a type of antimetabolite drug that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with DNA synthesis. B) Cisplatin: Cisplatin is a platinum-containing compound and not an alkylating agent. It works by forming cross-links in DNA, leading to cell death. D) Carmustine: Carmustine, also known as BCNU, is a nitrosourea compound and not an alkylating agent. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription. Educationally, understanding the classification of anticancer drugs based on their mechanisms of action is crucial for pharmacology students and healthcare professionals. Knowing the specific properties of each drug helps in selecting the most appropriate treatment for different types of cancers and understanding potential side effects and interactions. This knowledge is essential for safe and effective medication management in clinical practice.
Question 4 of 5
A 52-year-old woman suffering from hypertension still had a blood pressure of 156/92 mm Hg after 3 months of therapy with hydrochlorothiazide and losartan. Her physician decided to add a third drug that acts by decreasing central sympathetic outflow. Which of the following adverse effects was most likely to occur after a few days of therapy with the new drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely adverse effect to occur after adding a third drug that acts by decreasing central sympathetic outflow would be severe postural hypotension. This is due to the combined effect of the drugs leading to a significant drop in blood pressure upon standing up, causing dizziness and potential fainting episodes. This adverse effect is commonly associated with antihypertensive medications that affect sympathetic outflow.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following actions most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of nitrates in the patient's disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrates, such as nitroglycerin and isosorbide mononitrate, mediate their therapeutic effect in variant angina by increasing blood flow in large epicardial vessels. This vasodilatory effect helps improve oxygen delivery to the heart muscle, relieving angina symptoms. Other options like increased heart rate, cardiac contractility, or left ventricular end-diastolic volume are not the primary mechanisms of action for nitrates in this context.