ATI RN
Pediatric Neurological NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The disease that evolvsubacutely over days or weeks of symptoms is seen in
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Brain tumor evolvsubacutely over days to weeks, with symptoms like headache, seizures, or focal deficits progressing as mass effect or edema worsens, per neurology texts. Seizurare episodic, lasting minutes, not weeks. Stroke is acute, onset within hours. Epidural hemorrhage progressrapidly (hours) post-trauma. Hereditary neuropathi(original E) are chronic, spanning years. Tumors gradual growth, causing pressure or infiltration, fits the subacute timeline, distinguishing it from acute or chronic processes. Imaging often reveals mass with surrounding edema, supporting diagnosis over time. Thus, D is the correct answer, reflecting its insidious yet progressive nature.
Question 2 of 5
The purpose of the neurologic examination is to localize or identify the region within the neuraxis from which the symptoms arise. To evaluate the integrity of the brainstem you should examine the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cranial nervassess brainstem integrity, per neurologic exams, as CN III-XII nuclei reside there, testing eye movements, facial symmetry, and swallowing. Mental status reflects cortex; motor and sensory systems span multiple levels; gait involvcerebellum/spinal cord. Brainstem lesions (e.g., stroke) disrupt cranial nerve function, making B the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
In motor examination, the power that is able to move against gravity but not against resistance; is graded as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Muscle power moving against gravity but not resistance is graded 3 , per Medical Research Council scale. Grade 1 is trace contraction; 2 movwithout gravity; 4 resists some resistance; 5 full strength. Grade 3s definition fits, making C the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
A 3-year-old boy presented with fever, anorexia and headache; examination showed positive meningeal irritation; analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) showed increased lymphocytand decreased glucose. He has a history of prolonged use of steroid therapy due to nephrotic syndrome. Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fungal meningitis fits fever, headache, meningeal signs, lymphocytic CSF pleocytosis, and low glucose in a steroid-treated child, per IDSA. Steroids predispose to fungi (e.g., Candida) by immunosuppression. Bacterial typically shows neutrophils; abscess focal signs; viral normal glucose. Fungal risk make B the correct answer.
Question 5 of 5
An adolescent female is complaining from chronic progressive headache that is gradually increasing in frequency and severity, her headachare worse when lying down and in the first awaking. Of the following, the MOST likely cause is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pseudotumor cerebri causchronic, progressive headachworse lying down or morning, per neurology texts, from idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH). Anxiety and depression lack positional worsening; epilepsy involvseizures; substance abuse is nonspecific. IIHs ICP pattern makes C the correct answer.