ATI RN
Certified Pediatric Nurse Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The Denver II assesses the development of children from birth to 6 years of age, it includes the following domains EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) intelligence. The Denver II is a developmental screening tool used to assess children from birth to 6 years of age. It evaluates four domains: language, gross motor skills, fine motor skills, and personal-social skills. The exclusion of intelligence from the Denver II assessment is based on the fact that intelligence is a complex and multifaceted construct that cannot be reliably assessed through a brief developmental screening tool like the Denver II. Option A) language is included in the Denver II because language development is a critical aspect of a child's overall development and can indicate potential delays or issues. Option C) gross motor skills and Option D) personal-social skills are also included in the Denver II as they are essential for evaluating a child's physical and social development. In an educational context, understanding the domains assessed by tools like the Denver II is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric populations. By recognizing what each domain evaluates, practitioners can better identify areas of concern, provide appropriate interventions, and support children's overall development. It also helps in collaborating with families to address any developmental delays or issues early on, enhancing the child's well-being and long-term outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
The MOST common cause of sleeping difficulty in the first 2 months of life is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) colic. In the first 2 months of life, colic is the most common cause of sleeping difficulty in infants. Colic leads to excessive crying, fussiness, and difficulty in soothing the baby, which can disrupt sleep patterns. Colic typically peaks around 6 weeks of age and can cause sleep disturbances during this period. Option A) gastro-esophageal reflux can also cause sleep disturbances in infants, but it is not as common in the first 2 months of life compared to colic. Reflux symptoms often worsen when lying down, leading to discomfort during sleep. Option C) formula intolerance can lead to gastrointestinal issues and discomfort, but it is less likely to be the primary cause of sleeping difficulties in the first 2 months unless there are other significant symptoms present. Option D) developmentally self-resolving sleeping behavior is not a common cause of sleeping difficulties in the first 2 months of life. While infants do go through various sleep patterns as they develop, persistent sleeping difficulties are more likely due to underlying issues like colic. In an educational context, understanding the common causes of sleeping difficulties in infants is crucial for pediatric nurses. By recognizing the symptoms and causes, nurses can provide appropriate support and guidance to parents in managing these challenges. Educating parents on strategies to soothe a colicky baby can significantly impact both the infant's sleep patterns and the overall well-being of the family.
Question 3 of 5
The age at which the infant achieves early head control with bobbing motion when pulled to sit is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) 3 months. Infants typically achieve early head control with a bobbing motion when pulled to sit around 3 months of age. At this stage, their neck muscles are strengthening, allowing them to better control their head movements. Option A) 2 months is too early for infants to have developed the necessary neck muscle strength for this milestone. At 2 months, infants are usually still developing their head control and are not able to exhibit the described bobbing motion. Option C) 4 months is slightly later than the typical age for achieving early head control with a bobbing motion. By 4 months, most infants have already mastered this skill and are progressing to more advanced forms of head control and movement. Option D) 6 months is beyond the expected age for achieving this milestone. By 6 months, infants should have already developed more advanced head control abilities and be working on sitting independently rather than just achieving head control when pulled to sit. Understanding developmental milestones in infants is crucial for pediatric nurses as it helps in monitoring children's growth and development, identifying any potential delays or issues early on, and providing appropriate support and interventions. By knowing the expected ages for different milestones, nurses can better assess and support the health and well-being of infants in their care.
Question 4 of 5
The first permanent tooth to erupt is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) molar at 6 years. The first permanent teeth to erupt are typically the first molars around the age of 6. This is because the first molars do not replace any primary teeth but instead emerge behind the last primary molars in the back of the mouth. Option A) central incisor at 6 years is incorrect because central incisors are typically the first primary teeth to erupt, not permanent teeth. Option C) premolar lower canine at 6-7 years is incorrect because premolars and canines are usually the second and third permanent teeth to erupt, respectively, after the first molars. Option D) upper canine at 6-7 years is incorrect because canines usually erupt after the premolars, not before them. In an educational context, understanding the sequence of tooth eruption is crucial for healthcare professionals working with pediatric patients. It helps in identifying normal growth and development, detecting potential issues early, and providing appropriate dental care. Educating parents about the timing of tooth eruption can also aid in promoting good oral hygiene practices from a young age.
Question 5 of 5
A 7 year old boy came to OPD with history of difficulty in rising up from sitting position. Examination reveals hypertrophy of calf muscles with trendelenburg gait. The most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder characterized by progressive muscle weakness, particularly in the pelvic and shoulder girdle muscles. The hypertrophy of calf muscles seen in this condition is due to muscle degeneration and fibrosis. The trendelenburg gait, where the child sways side to side while walking, is a common manifestation of Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to weakness in the hip muscles. Option A) Becker's muscular dystrophy is similar to Duchenne muscular dystrophy but has a milder course and later onset. It does not typically present with calf muscle hypertrophy seen in this case. Option C) Myotonic muscular dystrophy is characterized by myotonia (prolonged muscle contractions) and muscle wasting, not hypertrophy of calf muscles. Option D) Cerebral palsy is a neurological disorder that affects movement and muscle coordination but does not typically present with calf muscle hypertrophy and trendelenburg gait seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for pediatric nurses to accurately assess and manage children with neuromuscular disorders. Recognizing the specific signs and symptoms of each condition allows for early intervention and appropriate support for patients and their families.