ATI RN
microbiology an introduction 13th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Extracellular. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the blood outside of cells, preventing the formation of blood clots. It does not directly affect cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular processes. By targeting extracellular factors, heparin effectively reduces the ability of blood to clot, making it an effective anticoagulant. The other choices are incorrect because heparin does not act on cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular sites in the body to decrease blood clotting.
Question 2 of 9
The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Extracellular. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors in the blood outside of cells, preventing the formation of blood clots. It does not directly affect cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular processes. By targeting extracellular factors, heparin effectively reduces the ability of blood to clot, making it an effective anticoagulant. The other choices are incorrect because heparin does not act on cellular, neuromuscular, or intracellular sites in the body to decrease blood clotting.
Question 3 of 9
During long-term treatment of an infectious patient with penicillin, the pathogen transformed into the L-form. What changes occur in the pathogen cell in case of L-transformation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a cell wall. L-form transformation is a phenomenon where the pathogen loses its cell wall, making it resistant to antibiotics like penicillin. The absence of a cell wall allows the pathogen to survive in a hostile environment. Choice B: Absence of flagella is incorrect because flagella are responsible for motility and not directly related to L-form transformation. Choice C: Absence of a capsule is incorrect as the capsule is a protective layer outside the cell wall and not affected by L-form transformation. Choice D: Absence of a spore is incorrect because spores are a dormant form of bacteria and not related to L-form transformation.
Question 4 of 9
Which one IS NOT true for the urinary tract infections?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Understand haematogenic spread means bacteria traveling through blood. Step 2: Urinary tract infections typically occur due to bacteria entering through urethra, not via blood. Step 3: Choice A states bacterial UTIs are usually after haematogenic spread, which is incorrect. Step 4: Therefore, Choice A is NOT true for UTIs. Summary: B, C, and D are incorrect as they align with typical characteristics of UTIs.
Question 5 of 9
A 52-year-old patient has the following diagnosis: systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs. What drug should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. It is the drug of choice for treating systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Metronidazole is well-absorbed, reaches therapeutic levels in the intestines, liver, and lungs, making it effective in treating the multi-organ involvement in this case. Choice B: Quiniofone is not a recommended treatment for amebiasis. Choice C: Tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for systemic amebiasis. Choice D: Quingamine is not a recognized drug for treating amebiasis.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following bacteria produces endotoxins that can lead to septic shock?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the above). All three bacteria (Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, Pseudomonas aeruginosa) produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and can trigger a strong immune response, leading to septic shock when released in large amounts. Escherichia coli and Salmonella enterica are common causes of bacterial septic shock, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known for its ability to produce endotoxins that contribute to severe infections and septic shock. Therefore, all three choices are correct in this context.
Question 7 of 9
What is the role of bacterial plasmids?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Carry genes for antibiotic resistance. Bacterial plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can be transferred between bacteria, carrying genes such as antibiotic resistance. This allows bacteria to survive in the presence of antibiotics. Plasmids do not directly play a role in protein synthesis (choice A) or DNA replication (choice B). Plasmids are not responsible for motility (choice D) as that function is usually carried out by flagella or other cellular structures.
Question 8 of 9
The bacterial capsule is composed of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The bacterial capsule is composed of polysaccharides. This outer layer helps bacteria evade the host immune system, protect against desiccation, and aid in attachment to host cells. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugar molecules, providing a protective barrier for the bacteria. Lipopolysaccharides (choice A) are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and are not a major component of the capsule. Teichoic acid (choice B) is a component of the cell wall in Gram-positive bacteria, not the capsule. Peptidoglycan (choice D) is another component of the cell wall but is not part of the capsule.
Question 9 of 9
What is virus Fixe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A vaccine strain. Virus Fixe is a specific strain of rabies virus used in the production of rabies vaccines. This strain has been attenuated to be safe for use in vaccines. Choice B, a cell culture, is incorrect as it does not specifically refer to Virus Fixe. Choice C, a wild type of rabies virus, is incorrect as Virus Fixe is not a wild type but a modified strain. Choice D, an infectious disease, is incorrect as Virus Fixe is not a disease but a strain of virus used in vaccines.