ATI RN
physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The daughter of a 79-year-old woman notes that her mother, who has dementia and lives with her, is wetting herself when she attends her new day program. Program staff have requested that “something be done” as she is requiring a clothes change nearly every time she is there. She cannot describe the circumstances of leakage, saying “it just comes.” Leakage is uncommon at home. Her medications include donepezil and acetaminophen. Physical examination is normal. Initial treatment approach will require intervention by which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Given the complexity of dementia and incontinence, the physician should be involved in assessing the cause and recommending treatment.
Question 2 of 9
The client with iron deficiency anemia should be advised to take the iron supplement:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Iron is best absorbed on an empty stomach for optimal effectiveness.
Question 3 of 9
Key neurotransmitter-based therapeutic strategies for PD include all the following except:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PD treatment aims to increase dopaminergic activity and reduce cholinergic activity, not increase glutamatergic stimulation.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following factors is NOT typically assessed during a nail evaluation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Moisture is not typically a factor in nail evaluation; the focus is more on condition, length, and clubbing.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Quince is a 68-year-old patient who describes several months of urinary frequency and a sensation of incomplete emptying with no associated dysuria, hematuria, or fever. Physical examination reveals a slightly enlarged but nontender prostate, a postvoid residual urine volume of 20 mL, and a urinalysis with 15 white blood cells (WBCs) and 5 red blood cells (RBCs). Urine culture reveals 30,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli. You see a report from last year that shows urinalysis with 10 WBCs and 4 RBCs that was obtained as part of a routine evaluation. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of Mr. Quince’s symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A 4-week course of ciprofloxacin is appropriate to treat the urinary tract infection and resolve symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with signs of chest pain, the nurse practitioner observes jugular venous distention. Their finding is consistent with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jugular venous distention is a sign of heart failure due to fluid retention.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse practitioner diagnoses a female patient with trichomoniasis. A common chief complaint of a patient with trichomoniasis is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaginal discharge is a hallmark symptom of trichomoniasis.
Question 8 of 9
Of the following conditions, which one is most common and most often preventable?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Falls are the most common and preventable issue among older adults.
Question 9 of 9
Healthcare providers should recommend that older adults engage in which one of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The recommendation is 150 minutes of moderate intensity physical activity per week for older adults.