The critical care nurse is responsible for monitoring the patient receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). In doing so, the nurse should

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Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

The critical care nurse is responsible for monitoring the patient receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). In doing so, the nurse should

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing the hemofilter every 6 hours for clotting is essential in ensuring the effectiveness of CRRT. Clotting can obstruct blood flow, leading to treatment inefficiency and potential harm to the patient. This step helps the nurse to promptly address any clotting issues and prevent complications. A: Assessing that the blood tubing is warm to the touch is not a standard practice for monitoring CRRT and does not provide relevant information about the treatment's effectiveness. C: Covering the dialysis lines to protect them from light is not a priority in monitoring CRRT. Light exposure is not a common concern in this context. D: Using clean technique during vascular access dressing changes is important for infection prevention but is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of CRRT.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter in place. In caring for this patient, the nurse should

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the catheter site for redness and/or swelling is crucial for early detection of infection. Redness and swelling are common signs of infection at the catheter site, which requires prompt intervention. Applying a sterile gauze dressing (choice A) is not necessary for a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter. Replacing the transparent dressing every 10 days (choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Using the catheter for drawing blood samples (choice D) is not appropriate as it can introduce contaminants and increase the risk of infection. Regular assessment of the catheter site is essential for early detection and prevention of complications.

Question 3 of 9

In assessing a patient, the nurse understands that what sym ptomology is an early sign of hypoxemia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Restlessness is an early sign of hypoxemia due to the body's response to low oxygen levels. Step 2: Restlessness occurs as the body tries to increase oxygen intake. Step 3: Other choices are incorrect because clubbing and cyanosis are late signs, while hypotension is not a specific early sign of hypoxemia.

Question 4 of 9

A patient is admitted to the hospital with multiple trauma aabnirdb .ceoxmte/tensst ive blood loss. The nurse assesses vital signs to be BP 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate 135 beats/min, respirations 36 breaths/min, cardiac output (CO) of 2 L/min, systemic vas cular resistance of 3000 dynes/sec/cm5, and a hematocrit of 20%. The nurse anticip ates administration of which the following therapies or medications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dobutamine infusion. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing hypovolemic shock due to significant blood loss, resulting in low blood pressure, tachycardia, and low cardiac output. Dobutamine is a positive inotropic agent that increases cardiac contractility and output, helping to improve tissue perfusion. Blood transfusion (A) is a common intervention for hypovolemic shock, but in this case, the patient's hematocrit is low, indicating dilutional anemia rather than acute blood loss, so addressing the cardiac output is more urgent. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic that would exacerbate the hypovolemia and worsen the patient's condition. Dopamine (D) is a vasopressor that primarily increases blood pressure, but in this case, the patient's low cardiac output is the main concern, making dobutamine a more appropriate choice.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse uses subtle measures of painful stimuli, such as nailbed pressure to elicit a response from a neurologically impaired patient. By using this meth od rather than nipple pinching, the nurse is exemplifying what ethical principle?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nonmaleficence. The nurse is demonstrating nonmaleficence by choosing a less harmful method (nailbed pressure) to assess pain in a neurologically impaired patient, instead of a more painful method (nipple pinching). Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of avoiding harm or minimizing harm to the patient. In this scenario, the nurse is prioritizing the well-being and comfort of the patient by using a less invasive and painful method to elicit a response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because beneficence refers to doing good for the patient, fidelity to being loyal and maintaining trust, and veracity to truthfulness and honesty, none of which directly apply in this situation.

Question 6 of 9

A 53-year-old, 80-kg patient is admitted to the cardiac sur gical intensive care unit after cardiac surgery with the following arterial blood gas (ABG ) levels. What is the nurse’s interpretation of these values? pH 7.4 PaCO 40 mm Hg Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L PaO 95 mm Hg O saturation 97% Respirations 20 breaths per minute

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct interpretation is C: Normal ABG values. 1. pH is within the normal range of 7.35-7.45. 2. PaCO2 is 40 mm Hg, within the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg. 3. Bicarbonate is 24 mEq/L, within the normal range of 22-26 mEq/L. 4. PaO2 is 95 mm Hg, within the normal range of 80-100 mm Hg. 5. Oxygen saturation is 97%, which is normal. 6. Respirations are also within the normal range at 20 breaths per minute. Overall, all values fall within the normal range, indicating a well-maintained acid-base balance. Other choices are incorrect because there are no abnormalities that would suggest compensated metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, or respiratory acidosis based on the given ABG values.

Question 7 of 9

A patient’s status deteriorates and mechanical ventilation i s now required. The pulmonologist wants the patient to receive 10 breaths/min from the ventilaabtirobr.c bomu/tt ewst ants to encourage the patient to breathe spontaneously in between the mechanical breaths at his own tidal volume. This mode of ventilation is referred to by what term?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation (IMV) allows the patient to breathe spontaneously between the preset mechanical breaths. 2. It provides a set number of breaths per minute while allowing the patient to initiate additional breaths at their own tidal volume. 3. IMV is a partial ventilatory support mode, providing a balance between controlled and spontaneous breathing. 4. Assist/Control Ventilation (A) provides full support with every breath initiated by the patient or the ventilator. 5. Controlled Ventilation (B) does not allow for spontaneous breaths by the patient. 6. Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (D) is a separate mode focusing on maintaining positive pressure at the end of expiration, not providing breaths.

Question 8 of 9

A patient in hospice care is experiencing dyspnea. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer oxygen as prescribed. Dyspnea in a hospice patient often indicates respiratory distress, and administering oxygen can help improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulty. Positioning the patient flat on their back (A) may worsen dyspnea due to increased pressure on the diaphragm. Restricting fluid intake (C) is not appropriate as dehydration can exacerbate respiratory distress. Chest physiotherapy (D) may not be suitable for a hospice patient experiencing dyspnea as it can be physically taxing and may not address the underlying cause effectively.

Question 9 of 9

After the change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The patient receiving IV heparin with a PTT of 98 seconds is at risk for bleeding due to the therapeutic range of 60-80 seconds. Assessing this patient first is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications. A high PTT indicates the blood is not clotting properly, increasing the risk of bleeding. Prompt assessment and possible adjustment of heparin infusion are needed. A: The patient with a temperature of 101.4°F may have a fever but is not at immediate risk compared to the patient with a high PTT. B: The patient on BiPAP with a respiratory rate of 16 is stable and does not require immediate assessment. C: The patient post-percutaneous coronary intervention needing to void is a routine need and does not require immediate attention compared to the patient with a critical lab value.

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