ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
The critical care environment is stressful to the patient. Which interventions assist in reducing this stress? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Adjust lighting to promote normal sleep-wake cycles. Rationale: 1. Adjusting lighting can help regulate the patient's circadian rhythm, promoting better sleep and reducing stress. 2. Normal sleep-wake cycles are crucial for overall well-being and healing in a critical care setting. 3. Proper lighting can also create a more calming environment for the patient. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Providing clocks, calendars, and personal photos can be overwhelming for a stressed patient. C. Talking about other patients may increase anxiety and breach patient confidentiality. D. Telling the day and time of routine interventions may disrupt the patient's sense of time and add to stress.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient’s urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine indicates possible kidney damage from the blunt trauma. This is concerning as it may suggest renal injury or dysfunction. A: Creatinine levels in the urine being similar to blood levels is normal as creatinine is filtered by the kidneys. B: Sodium and chloride being present in the urine is expected as they are components of urine. C: Urine uric acid levels matching serum levels is common as uric acid is excreted by the kidneys. In summary, the presence of red blood cells and albumin in the urine is abnormal and indicates potential kidney damage, making it the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being evaluated clianbiircba.clolmy/ tfeostr brain death by a primary care provider. Which assessment findings by the nurse sup port brain death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, absence of a corneal reflex, because in brain death, all brainstem reflexes, including the corneal reflex, are absent. This indicates complete loss of brain function. Choice B, unequal reactive pupils, is incorrect as it suggests some level of brainstem function. Choice C, withdrawal from painful stimuli, is also incorrect as it is a spinal reflex and can occur even in the absence of brain function. Choice D, core temperature of 100.8° F, is irrelevant to assessing brain death.
Question 5 of 9
A middle-aged patient tells the nurse, 'My mother died 4 months ago, and I just can’t seem to get over it. I’m not sure it is normal to still think about her every day.' Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about normal grieving. This is because the patient is expressing uncertainty and seeking validation for their feelings, indicating a lack of understanding about the grieving process. Choice A is incorrect as hopelessness typically involves feelings of despair and loss of motivation, which are not explicitly stated by the patient. Choice B is incorrect as complicated grieving involves specific unresolved issues related to the loss, which the patient did not mention. Choice D is incorrect as chronic sorrow is typically associated with ongoing feelings of sadness and longing, which are not explicitly expressed by the patient.
Question 6 of 9
What factors associated with the critical care unit can pred ispose the client to increased pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of an endotracheal tube can predispose the client to increased pain and anxiety due to discomfort, difficulty breathing, and potential for aspiration. The tube insertion process itself can be painful and traumatic. Frequent vital sign assessment, monitor alarms, and room temperature are not directly associated with increased pain and anxiety from the endotracheal tube.
Question 7 of 9
The following interventions are part of the emergency department (ED) protocol for a patient who has been admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the patient's rings first. This is crucial to prevent constriction and swelling due to potential allergic reactions or inflammation from bee stings. Removing rings allows for proper circulation and prevents complications like compartment syndrome. Ice packs (B) can be applied after removing the rings to reduce swelling. Calamine lotion (C) can provide relief for itching but is not as urgent as ring removal. Diphenhydramine (D) can be given later for systemic allergic reactions but should not take precedence over removing the rings.
Question 8 of 9
Her urine output for the past 2 hours totaled only 40 mL. She arrived from s urgery to repair an aortic aneurysm 4 hours ago and remains on mechanical ventilation. In the past 2 hours, her heart rate has increased from 80 to 100 beats per minute and he r blood pressure has decreased from 128/82 to 100/70 mm Hg. She is being given an infusaiboirnb .coofm n/toesrtm al saline at 100 mL per hour. Her right atrial pressure through the subclavian cen tral line is low at 3 mm Hg. Her urine is concentrated. Her BUN and creatinine levels have been stable and in normal range. Her abdominal dressing is dry with no indication of bleeding. My assessment suggests that Mrs. P. is hypovolemic and I would like you to consider in creasing her fluids or giving her a fluid challenge. Using the SBAR model for communication, the information the nurse gives about the patient’s history and vital signs is appropriate fo r what part of the model?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessment. In the SBAR communication model, the nurse's information about the patient's history and vital signs falls under the Assessment component. This is because the nurse is providing a detailed evaluation of the patient's current condition based on objective data such as urine output, heart rate, blood pressure, and other key indicators. The nurse is analyzing the situation and forming a judgment that the patient is hypovolemic, indicating a fluid deficit. This assessment is crucial for informing further actions or interventions, such as increasing fluids or providing a fluid challenge. Summary of other choices: A: Situation - This choice would refer to a brief summary of the current situation without detailed analysis or interpretation. B: Background - This choice would involve providing relevant background information about the patient, such as medical history or recent procedures, but not the current assessment of the patient's condition. D: Recommendation - This choice would involve suggesting a course of action or treatment based on the assessment, which comes after
Question 9 of 9
After a change-of-shift report on a ventilator weaning unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no urine output for the last 6 hours. This patient should be assessed first because the absence of urine output for 6 hours after being extubated could indicate acute kidney injury or other serious complications that need immediate attention. Urine output is a crucial indicator of renal function and can reflect the patient's overall hemodynamic status. In contrast, the other choices do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Choice A involves a patient in rest mode post-failed breathing trial, which does not require immediate assessment. Choice B mentions continuous PETCO2 monitoring, which is important but not as urgent as assessing a patient with no urine output. Choice C describes a patient with a ScvO2 of 69%, which may need monitoring but does not indicate an urgent priority compared to assessing a patient with no urine output after recent extubation.