The CORRECT statement with regards to face to pubis delivery is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Face to pubis delivery occurs when the fetal face presents towards the mother's pubic bone during birth. Choice C is correct because a 45˚ anterior rotation of the occiput is needed for this positioning. This allows the fetal face to be directed towards the mother's pubis for a successful face to pubis delivery. Choices A and D are incorrect as they mention incorrect angles of rotation. Choice B is incorrect as a persistent occipito posterior position would result in a face to sacrum delivery, not face to pubis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios leads to reduced volume of amniotic fluid, which can result in poor fetal movements and inadequate cushioning for the fetus. This can increase the likelihood of abnormal fetal positions like shoulder presentation. Other choices are incorrect because: A: A sub-septate uterus is a structural uterine abnormality and not directly related to shoulder presentation. C: Prematurity may lead to preterm labor but is not specifically associated with shoulder presentation. D: Multiple pregnancy can increase the risk of malpresentation but is not a direct maternal cause of shoulder presentation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for choice C: 1. Excessive molding or abnormal stretching of the fetal head can indicate neonatal intracranial injury due to the trauma during birth. 2. This feature suggests possible compression or trauma to the baby's head during delivery. 3. It may lead to intracranial hemorrhage or other injuries, requiring close monitoring and medical intervention. Summary of other choices: A. An oedematous swelling resolving in 48 hours is likely a normal finding (cephalohematoma) and not specific to intracranial injury. B. Notable bleeding between the epicranial aponeurosis & periosteum may indicate cephalohematoma or caput succedaneum, not necessarily intracranial injury. D. Peripheral cyanosis is related to oxygenation and circulation, not specific to intracranial injury.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the main aims of an exchange transfusion procedure are to control haemolysis (process of breaking down red blood cells) and restore hemoglobin levels. This procedure involves removing the baby's blood and replacing it with donor blood to prevent complications from severe jaundice or other conditions. Choice A is incorrect because exchange transfusion does not necessarily cure haemolysis, but it helps control it. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure focuses on managing specific issues rather than removing all toxic materials. Choice C is incorrect because it does not directly address the primary goals of an exchange transfusion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depression. Psychosis during puerperium commonly manifests as postpartum depression, characterized by feelings of extreme sadness, anxiety, and fatigue. This is due to hormonal changes and stress associated with childbirth. Mania (choice A) and bipolar disorder (choice B) are less common during this period. Infection (choice D) is not a typical manifestation of psychosis during puerperium. Overall, postpartum depression is the most prevalent and well-documented form of psychosis in the postpartum period.