ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The correct statement about shoulder dystocia is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement about shoulder dystocia is A: It’s an impaction of the anterior shoulder after delivery of the head. This is accurate as shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior shoulder becomes impacted behind the maternal pubic symphysis. This can lead to difficulty delivering the shoulders after the head is delivered. B is incorrect as shoulder dystocia involves the anterior shoulder, not the posterior. C is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is not related to compound presentation. D is incorrect as shoulder dystocia is an obstetric emergency that requires prompt intervention to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby.
Question 2 of 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (>90%). Mr. Mettenberger had a reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year, indicating a high recurrence risk. Spontaneous pneumothorax recurrence rates are high, especially in young males. Factors such as smoking history, gender, and prior occurrences contribute to increased risk. Mr. Mettenberger's cessation of smoking reduces but does not eliminate the risk. Choices A, B, and C are too low, given his history and current situation. Choice D is the most appropriate due to the high likelihood of recurrence based on his medical history and risk factors.
Question 3 of 5
An indication for forceps delivery is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delay in second stage of labor. Forceps delivery is indicated when there is a delay in the second stage of labor to expedite delivery and prevent maternal and fetal complications. This could be due to factors such as maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, or ineffective pushing. Inadequate pelvis size (A) may necessitate a C-section, unsuccessful vacuum extraction (C) may require alternative interventions, and fetal distress in the first stage of labor (D) may not necessarily indicate the need for forceps delivery immediately.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because virilizing adrenal tumors are more likely to be malignant in children. This is due to the fact that virilizing tumors can be associated with conditions like adrenocortical carcinoma, which is a malignant tumor. In contrast, feminizing adrenal tumors are not always carcinomas (choice A) and are not the most common type of adrenal tumor (choice B). Additionally, virilizing tumors in women can be localized to different parts of the adrenal gland, not just the cortex (choice C). Therefore, choice D is the most accurate statement among the options provided.
Question 5 of 5
Predisposing factors to uterine rupture include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because neglected obstructed labor and high parity are well-established predisposing factors to uterine rupture. Neglected obstructed labor can cause prolonged pressure on the uterus, leading to weakening and potential rupture. High parity (having given birth multiple times) can also increase the risk of uterine rupture due to repeated stretching and strain on the uterine muscles. A, B, and D are incorrect because nulliparity (never given birth), breech presentation, multiple pregnancy, and obstetric maneuvers are not as strongly associated with uterine rupture as neglected obstructed labor and high parity. These factors may increase the risk of other complications during childbirth but are not primary predisposing factors for uterine rupture.