The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is as follows: 1. Adsorption: Virus attaches to host cell. 2. Penetration: Virus enters host cell. 3. Uncoating: Viral genetic material is released. 4. Replication: Viral genetic material replicates. 5. Assembly: New viral particles are assembled. 6. Release: New viral particles are released from the host cell. Choice A is correct as it follows the correct chronological order of virus multiplication stages. Choice B is incorrect as it has the wrong order of penetration and adsorption. Choice C is incorrect as it has the wrong order of adsorption, uncoating, and penetration. Choice D is incorrect as it has the wrong order of penetration and uncoating.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a straight or slightly curved rod with occasional polymorphism. This bacterium does not conform to the characteristics of gram-negative coccus (A), gram-positive coccus (B), or gram-negative rod (C). Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by its unique cell wall composition, which includes high lipid content and mycolic acids, contributing to its acid-fast staining property. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the morphology of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium known to cause syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection. Step 2: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not syphilis. Step 3: Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for causing chlamydia, not syphilis. Step 4: Escherichia coli is commonly found in the gut and can cause gastrointestinal infections, not syphilis. Summary: Treponema pallidum is the correct answer as it is the specific bacterium associated with syphilis, while the other choices are responsible for different infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Actinomycosis. This is because the patient's presentation of a painful swelling with a fistula containing white granules and yellow-green honeycomb-like tissue is classic for Actinomycosis. Actinomyces is a gram-positive anaerobic bacterium that forms sulfur granules in tissues. Tuberculosis (B) typically presents with caseating granulomas, not sulfur granules. Leprosy (C) presents with skin lesions and nerve damage, not characteristic of this case. Syphilis (D) usually presents with painless ulcers and rash, not the painful swelling and fistula seen in this patient.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mycoplasma. Mycoplasma is the only bacteria among the choices that have sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane. This feature helps stabilize their membrane structure due to the lack of a cell wall. Legionella (A), Bacillus (B), and Rickettsia (C) do not contain sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane. Legionella has a unique lipid composition, Bacillus has peptidoglycan in its cell wall, and Rickettsia is an intracellular parasite lacking sterols in its membrane.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: infants. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is most common in infants because their immune systems are not fully developed, making them more susceptible to Staphylococcus aureus infections. This bacteria produces exotoxins that cause the skin to blister and peel, characteristic of the syndrome. Adolescents, young adults, and the elderly have more mature immune systems, making them less vulnerable to this specific infection. Therefore, infants are at a higher risk for developing Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome compared to other age groups.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Immunological tolerance to the pathogen Rationale: 1. Immunological tolerance is when the immune system does not mount a response against specific antigens to prevent autoimmunity. 2. In the context of infection, tolerance to the pathogen means the immune system does not recognize the pathogen as a threat and does not initiate a protective response. 3. This lack of response leaves the host vulnerable to infection as there is no specific immune defense mechanism activated against the pathogen. Summary of incorrect choices: A: Opsonic action of antibody - enhances phagocytosis of pathogens B: Viral neutralization by specific antibody - prevents viral entry into host cells D: Neutralization of protein exotoxin - prevents the harmful effects of toxins produced by pathogens.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This bacterium is the likely causative agent of the patient's symptoms based on the presentation of dysuria and purulent discharge, which are classic signs of gonorrhea. Gram-negative diplococci are characteristic of Neisseria species. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted pathogen commonly associated with urethral infections. Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Proteus mirabilis are not typically associated with urethral discharge and are not Gram-negative diplococci.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sabouraud. Sabouraud agar is specifically designed to promote the growth of fungi due to its low pH and high glucose content. The cream-like colonies indicate fungal growth, as fungi often appear as fluffy or powdery colonies on Sabouraud agar. Lowenstein-Jensen is used for mycobacteria, Roux for diphtheria, and Loeffler for Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Therefore, Sabouraud is the most suitable medium for detecting fungal contamination based on the characteristics of the colonies formed.