The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract, associated with abnormal apical position, is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Choanal atresia. The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract with abnormal apical position is typically associated with choanal atresia, which is a blockage or narrowing of the back of the nasal passage. This condition can lead to respiratory distress in newborns due to difficulty breathing through the nose. Explanation: 1. Laryngeal stridor (Choice A) is a high-pitched noise during breathing and is not typically associated with abnormal apical position. 2. Diaphragmatic hernia (Choice B) is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, but it is not related to abnormal apical position. 3. Tracheo-bronchi fistula (Choice D) is an abnormal connection between the trachea and bronchi, which is not associated with abnormal apical position. In summary, choanal atresia is the correct answer because it fits the description of

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Choanal atresia. The congenital abnormality of the respiratory tract with abnormal apical position is typically associated with choanal atresia, which is a blockage or narrowing of the back of the nasal passage. This condition can lead to respiratory distress in newborns due to difficulty breathing through the nose. Explanation: 1. Laryngeal stridor (Choice A) is a high-pitched noise during breathing and is not typically associated with abnormal apical position. 2. Diaphragmatic hernia (Choice B) is a defect in the diaphragm that allows abdominal organs to move into the chest cavity, but it is not related to abnormal apical position. 3. Tracheo-bronchi fistula (Choice D) is an abnormal connection between the trachea and bronchi, which is not associated with abnormal apical position. In summary, choanal atresia is the correct answer because it fits the description of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections. A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection. B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism. C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Uterine atony is the most common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contraction to control bleeding. This is supported by research and clinical evidence. Trauma to the genital tract is a less common cause and usually leads to delayed hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect as uterine atony is a well-documented primary cause. Choice C is incorrect as uterine atony is consistently the leading cause. Choice D is incorrect as the cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage is clear, with uterine atony being the most common culprit.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chest radiography. In cases of acute abdomen, a chest radiograph is essential to rule out conditions like pneumothorax, pleural effusion, or pneumonia which may present with similar symptoms. This helps in identifying potential causes of abdominal pain outside the abdomen. Abdominal radiograph (A) may not provide enough information for diagnosis. Contrast radiography (B) and ultrasonography (D) are not universally essential for all cases of acute abdomen and may not be appropriate in certain situations.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in obstructive shock due to a large pulmonary embolus, there is increased resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, leading to elevated right ventricular pressure. This causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, increasing left ventricular pressure. The increased left ventricular pressure results in decreased cardiac output as the left ventricle struggles to pump against the increased resistance. A: Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures - This is incorrect as obstructive shock typically results in elevated ventricular pressures due to increased resistance. B: Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures - This is partially true, but C is a more complete answer that explains the consequences of these pressures on cardiac output. D: Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance - This is incorrect as obstructive shock leads to increased, not decreased, systemic vascular resistance due to the embolus obstructing blood flow.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facilitation of weight gain. A thermal controlled environment for a low birth weight baby helps in maintaining the baby's body temperature, reducing energy expenditure, and promoting weight gain. This is crucial for the baby's growth and development. Incorrect choices: A: Prevention of infection - While a thermal controlled environment can indirectly help prevent infections by maintaining the baby's health, it is not the primary aim. C: Provision of quality care - Quality care involves multiple aspects beyond just thermal control, so this is not the primary aim. D: Provision of nutrition - Nutrition is important for weight gain, but the thermal controlled environment specifically focuses on regulating the baby's body temperature to support weight gain.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not associated with hyperacidity but is more likely due to complications such as HELLP syndrome or liver involvement. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not hyperacidity. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia should not be attributed to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable.