ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The comprehensive serologic assessment of a patient with Cushings syndrome is likely to produce which constellation of findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production leading to sodium retention, potassium loss, and increased protein breakdown. Low sodium and potassium levels along with high BUN are commonly seen in patients with Cushing's syndrome. A: Low potassium and high glucose are possible findings, but high white blood cell count is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome. B: High sodium and polycythemia are not typical findings in Cushing's syndrome, and low BUN is not consistent with the protein breakdown seen in this condition. D: High sodium and high chloride levels can be seen, but high RBCs are not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.
Question 2 of 9
Mrs. Jenner is a 41-year-old female who is being evaluated for persistent nausea. She had an abdominal CT scan that reported three hepatic hemangiomas ranging from 3 to 5 cm. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate response to this report is to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A needle biopsy is appropriate for definitive diagnosis of hepatic hemangiomas, ruling out other liver lesions. It helps determine if they are benign or malignant. This will guide further management decisions. Summary: B: Annual ultrasound is unnecessary for benign hemangiomas. C: Surgery is not indicated for asymptomatic hepatic hemangiomas. D: Documenting the finding is important but not the appropriate next step in management.
Question 3 of 9
Mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TB can be transmitted through respiratory droplets, not just during labor. Step 2: Mother with active TB can transmit the bacteria to the child during childbirth. Step 3: Therefore, the statement that mother-to-child transmission never occurs during labor is false. Summary: Choice B is correct because TB transmission can occur during labor, making Choice A incorrect. Choices C and D are irrelevant.
Question 4 of 9
Prior to taking a patient for an emergency cesarean section, it is MOST important to assess that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because establishing an intravenous line is essential for immediate access to administer fluids, medications, and blood products during the emergency cesarean section. This step ensures that the patient's vital signs can be supported, and any emergent interventions can be readily delivered. A: While informed consent is important, in an emergency situation, the priority is to ensure the patient's immediate medical needs are met. B: Inserting a Foley's catheter may be necessary during the procedure, but it is not the most critical assessment prior to the cesarean section. D: Shaving the perineal area is not a priority in an emergency situation and may be done during the preparation for surgery.
Question 5 of 9
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy treatment for cancer is given to facilitate surgical resection. When the outcomes of cancer therapies are evaluated, the terms complete response and partial response often are used. Partial response means that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in the context of neoadjuvant chemotherapy, a partial response means converting an unresectable tumor to a resectable one. This is crucial as it allows for successful surgical removal of the tumor. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately define partial response in the context of cancer therapy. A, stating 50% of patients demonstrating remission, is not specific to the change in resectability. B, mentioning 50% survival at 5 years, is more related to overall survival rather than the response to treatment. C, stating a reduction in tumor mass by >50%, does not necessarily imply a change in resectability status. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate definition of partial response in the given scenario.
Question 6 of 9
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.
Question 7 of 9
Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (B) or systemic corticosteroids (D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with suspected Cushings syndrome is being evaluated to establish the diagnosis and cause. Patients with an adrenal tumor typically will demonstrate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low ACTH and low cortisol. In a patient with an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome, the tumor itself produces excess cortisol independently of ACTH regulation. Therefore, ACTH levels are low due to negative feedback from high cortisol levels. As a result, cortisol levels are high, while ACTH levels are low. Explanation for other choices: B: Low ACTH and high cortisol - This suggests primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease), not Cushing's syndrome. C: High ACTH and low cortisol - This suggests secondary adrenal insufficiency, not Cushing's syndrome. D: High ACTH and high cortisol - This is contradictory and not physiologically possible in the context of an adrenal tumor causing Cushing's syndrome.
Question 9 of 9
Three (3) complications of breech presentation:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Breech presentation increases risks during childbirth. Prolonged labor is common due to the position of the baby. Umbilical cord prolapse occurs when the cord slips through the cervix before the baby, leading to oxygen deprivation. Shoulder dystocia happens when the baby's shoulders get stuck during delivery. Choice A is correct as it directly relates to complications of breech presentation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the complications associated with breech presentation. Cesarean delivery is often recommended for breech presentation to avoid complications. Uterine rupture is a rare but severe complication that is not directly caused by breech presentation. Preeclampsia, gestational diabetes, and low birth weight are not commonly associated with breech presentation. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer.