ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The compact structure in which the genome of the bacteria is located is called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nucleoid. The bacterial genome is located in the nucleoid, a region within the bacterial cell where the genetic material is condensed and organized. This structure is not the same as a nucleus found in eukaryotic cells. The other choices (B: Nucleotide and C: ATP) are incorrect because nucleotide refers to a building block of DNA or RNA, and ATP is a molecule used for energy transfer in cells, neither of which specifically houses the bacterial genome. Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as well, as the correct term for the compact structure containing the bacterial genome is the nucleoid.
Question 2 of 9
The discipline addressing issues associated with the choice and application of drugs to be used for disease prevention, treatment, and/or diagnosis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: pharmacotherapeutics. Pharmacotherapeutics focuses on the selection and use of drugs for disease prevention, treatment, and diagnosis. It involves determining the most effective and safe medications for specific conditions based on patient factors. Toxicology (B) is the study of the adverse effects of chemicals, including drugs. Pharmacokinetics (C) focuses on drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in the body. Pharmacy (D) involves the preparation and dispensing of medications, but does not specifically address drug selection and application for disease management. Therefore, pharmacotherapeutics is the most suitable discipline for addressing the use of drugs in disease management.
Question 3 of 9
Aflatoxins are produced by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Genus Aspergillus. Aflatoxins are toxic compounds produced by certain species of fungi, particularly Aspergillus species. Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus are well-known producers of aflatoxins. These fungi can contaminate crops such as peanuts, corn, and tree nuts, leading to potential health risks. Cryptococcus (A), Actinomyces (B), and Streptococcus (C) are not known to produce aflatoxins. It is important to be aware of the sources and implications of aflatoxin contamination to ensure food safety and public health.
Question 4 of 9
A woman gave birth to a stillborn baby with numerous malformations. What protozoan disease could cause intrauterine death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy leading to stillbirth and malformations. This parasite can cross the placenta and infect the fetus, causing severe complications. Leishmaniasis (B), Malaria (C), and Amebiasis (D) are not known to cause intrauterine death or malformations in the same way as Toxoplasmosis. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies, Malaria by mosquitoes, and Amebiasis by contaminated food or water.
Question 5 of 9
Which one of the following statements about Campylobacter fetus is NOT CORRECT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium. Campylobacter fetus is actually a Gram-negative bacterium. This is because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall, which does not retain the crystal violet stain used in the Gram-staining technique. It appears red or pink under a microscope after counterstaining with safranin. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. B: Optimal temperature for cultivation 35-37C - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus thrives at this temperature range. C: Opportunistic pathogen causes infections usually in newborns, immunocompromised patients, and cancer - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus can cause infections in these populations. D: Fastidious, microaerophile - Correct, as Campylobacter fetus is fastidious and requires specific growth conditions, including low oxygen levels.
Question 6 of 9
A child cut his leg with a piece of glass while playing and was brought to the clinic for the injection of tetanus toxoid. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock the serum was administered by Bezredka method. What mechanism underlies this method of desensitization of the body?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Binding of IgE fixed to the mast cells. The Bezredka method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the antigen (tetanus toxoid) to desensitize the body and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, thereby reducing the release of allergic mediators like histamine. This prevents the cascade of events that lead to anaphylactic shock. Choice B (Blocking the mediator synthesis in the mast cells) is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not block mediator synthesis but rather prevents the release of mediators by binding IgE. Choice C (Stimulation of immune tolerance to the antigen) is incorrect as the Bezredka method does not primarily focus on inducing immune tolerance but rather on preventing anaphylactic reactions. Choice D (Stimulation of the synthesis of antigen-specific IgG) is incorrect because the Bezredka method targets IgE antibodies on mast cells
Question 7 of 9
A bacteriological laboratory tests canned meat for botulinum toxin. Extract of the tested material and ABE botulinum antitoxin serum was introduced into the test group of mice; a control group of mice received the extract without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was used?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the ABE botulinum antitoxin serum is introduced along with the extract to neutralize the botulinum toxin. This is a specific type of serological reaction where the antitoxin serum binds to and neutralizes the toxin, preventing it from causing harm. Summary: - B: Precipitation involves the formation of visible insoluble complexes, which is not the case in this experiment. - C: Complement binding involves the activation of complement proteins, which is not the main mechanism at play here. - D: Double immunodiffusion is a technique to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies, but it is not directly related to the neutralization of toxins as seen in this experiment.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacteria can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions because they have the metabolic flexibility to switch between utilizing oxygen for respiration in aerobic conditions and using fermentation in anaerobic conditions. Obligate aerobes (B) require oxygen for survival, obligate anaerobes (C) cannot survive in the presence of oxygen, and microaerophiles (D) require low levels of oxygen to grow effectively. Therefore, the ability of facultative anaerobes to adapt to varying oxygen levels makes them the correct choice for this question.
Question 9 of 9
Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material. A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses. B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses. C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses. In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.