ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The compact structure in which the genome of the bacteria is located is called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nucleoid. The bacterial genome is located in the nucleoid, a region within the bacterial cell where the genetic material is condensed and organized. This structure is not the same as a nucleus found in eukaryotic cells. The other choices (B: Nucleotide and C: ATP) are incorrect because nucleotide refers to a building block of DNA or RNA, and ATP is a molecule used for energy transfer in cells, neither of which specifically houses the bacterial genome. Choice D: None of the above is incorrect as well, as the correct term for the compact structure containing the bacterial genome is the nucleoid.
Question 2 of 9
In serologic reactions used in virology, a diagnostic antibody response should be taken into account if:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a fourfold increase in titer in the second serum sample indicates a significant rise in specific antibodies, which is crucial for diagnosing viral infections accurately. This increase is considered significant in serologic reactions as it shows a strong antibody response to the virus. A: A threshold increase may not be substantial enough to confirm a diagnostic antibody response. B: Dismissing the increase in titer would overlook important diagnostic information. C: A twofold increase may not be as indicative of a strong antibody response compared to a fourfold increase.
Question 3 of 9
A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protozoa 10-18 mcm large. They have piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of body. What kind of the lowest organisms is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamblia. The description matches the characteristics of Giardia lamblia - a protozoan parasite that causes giardiasis. The piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, and two symmetrically located nuclei are specific to Giardia lamblia. It is important to differentiate it from the other choices. Dysentery ameba (choice B) typically has a single nucleus and lacks the specific characteristics described. Trichomonas (choice C) is a flagellated protozoan with different morphology and does not match the given description. Intestinal ameba (choice D) such as Entamoeba histolytica usually has a single nucleus and different body shape compared to the described organism.
Question 4 of 9
For enteropathogenic E. coli is true:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attach to enterocytes via a type III secretion system. 2. Once attached, they form attaching and effacing lesions on the microvilli, leading to microvillus destruction. 3. This mechanism allows EPEC to cause diarrhea by disrupting the normal absorptive function of the intestines. Summary: - B (They are invasive and produce enterotoxin) is incorrect because EPEC are non-invasive and do not produce enterotoxins. - C (Cause disease clinically similar to bacterial) is vague and does not provide specific information about EPEC pathogenesis. - D (None of the above) is incorrect as A is the correct explanation for EPEC pathogenicity.
Question 5 of 9
Some of the viruses have a cubic type of symmetry, which in the shape of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: icosahedral structure. Icosahedral symmetry is common in viruses due to its efficient packing of genetic material. It consists of 20 equilateral triangular faces and 12 vertices. This symmetry allows viruses to have a stable structure and optimal capacity for encapsulating their genetic material. A: Tetrahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 4 faces and is not commonly found in viruses. B: Hexahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 6 faces and is not a common symmetry type in viruses. C: Dodecahedral structure is incorrect as it consists of 12 faces and is not typically seen in viruses. In summary, the icosahedral structure is the correct choice due to its stability, efficient packing, and common presence in viral structures compared to the other options.
Question 6 of 9
Agents associated with human disease but generally not a serious health risk are classified in which of the following risk groups?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: RG2. RG2 is appropriate for agents associated with human disease that pose a moderate health risk. These agents may cause disease of varying severity, but generally do not result in serious health consequences. Other choices are incorrect because: A: RG1 is for agents not associated with disease in healthy adults, C: RG3 is for agents associated with serious or lethal human disease, and D: RG4 is for agents that pose a high risk of life-threatening disease and for which there are no treatments.
Question 7 of 9
On examination of a patient with disease onset 5 days ago the doctor suspected tularemia and prescribed the patient tularin intracutaneously. What is the purpose of this drug administration in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease. Explanation for other choices: A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment. B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection. D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.
Question 8 of 9
A 22-year-old patient is a clerk. His working day runs in a conditioned room. In summer he was taken by an acute disease with the following symptoms: fever, dyspnea, dry cough, pleural pain, myalgia, arthralgia. Objectively: moist rales on the right, pleural friction rub. X-ray picture showed infiltration of the inferior lobe. In blood: WBC - 11 · 109/l, stab neutrophils - 6%, segmented neutrophils - 70%, lymphocytes - 8%, ESR - 42 mm/h. What is the etiological factor pneumonia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Streptococcus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common etiological factor for community-acquired pneumonia in young adults. The symptoms described align with typical pneumococcal pneumonia presentation. Presence of pleural friction rub and infiltration in the X-ray support the diagnosis. The blood work showing elevated WBC count with a left shift (increased neutrophils and low lymphocytes) and elevated ESR is consistent with a bacterial infection. Legionella and Mycoplasma typically present with atypical pneumonia symptoms such as headache, confusion, and GI symptoms, which are not described in the case. Staphylococcus pneumonia is not a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in young adults.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following diseases is generally caused by contaminated food?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shigellosis. Shigellosis is caused by the bacteria Shigella, commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water. The bacteria can spread easily in unsanitary conditions. Mumps (A) is a viral infection spread through respiratory droplets. Legionellosis (C) is caused by the Legionella bacteria found in water sources like cooling towers. Tuberculosis (D) is a bacterial infection transmitted through the air. Therefore, the correct answer is B as it directly relates to contaminated food transmission.