ATI RN
Midwifery Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The commonly used inhalational analgesia during labour is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entonox. Entonox, a mixture of nitrous oxide and oxygen, is commonly used for inhalational analgesia during labor due to its fast-acting and safe properties. Nitrous oxide provides pain relief without affecting the baby's heart rate or causing sedation. Trilene (B) is not commonly used during labor due to potential side effects on the baby. Oxygen (C) is not an analgesic but is often used in conjunction with Entonox. Nitrous oxide (D) is the active component in Entonox and is the primary analgesic agent in this mixture.
Question 2 of 9
What are the complications associated with a high-risk pregnancy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. High-risk pregnancies are associated with various complications, including preterm birth, gestational diabetes, and preeclampsia. Preterm birth can lead to developmental issues for the baby. Gestational diabetes affects the mother's and baby's health. Preeclampsia can result in high blood pressure and organ damage. Choosing D as the correct answer encompasses all these complications, highlighting the comprehensive nature of risks in high-risk pregnancies. Choices A, B, and C alone do not cover all the potential complications, making them individually incorrect.
Question 3 of 9
Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a complication of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mallory-Weiss syndrome is caused by severe vomiting leading to tears in the esophagus. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, which can result in Mallory-Weiss syndrome. Placenta praevia, cardiac disease, and postpartum hemorrhage are not directly associated with Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
Question 4 of 9
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. In eclampsia, magnesium sulphate is the drug of choice because it helps prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular irritability and blocking peripheral neuromuscular transmission. It also has vasodilatory effects, improving uteroplacental blood flow. Phenobarbitone (A) is not recommended due to its sedative effects. Calcium gluconate (B) is used to treat hyperkalemia, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used for metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia. In summary, magnesium sulphate is preferred for its efficacy in preventing and managing seizures in eclampsia.
Question 5 of 9
Clinical features of intracranial injury include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Irritability, hypoxia, and paralysis. Intracranial injury can lead to neurological symptoms such as irritability due to brain inflammation, hypoxia from impaired oxygen delivery, and paralysis from damage to the brain or spinal cord. Limpness, bruises, and hypothermia (Option A) are not specific to intracranial injury. Hypothermia, limpness, and irritability (Option C) do not encompass the key neurological symptoms associated with intracranial injury. Hypocalcemia, paralysis, and hypoxia (Option D) include incorrect factors not typically seen in intracranial injury.
Question 6 of 9
K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: His symptoms occur in 5 to 10% of people after ulcer surgery. This is the correct answer because the patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating are common post-operative complications following ulcer surgery. By stating this fact to the patient, the AGACNP is providing reassurance that these symptoms are not unusual. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point since the symptoms described by the patient are known post-operative complications and do not indicate an urgent need for endoscopy. B: While gastroparesis can be a complication of ulcer surgery, there is no information in the case to suggest that the patient has chronic gastroparesis. C: Jumping to the conclusion that medication is unlikely to help and another surgery may be needed is premature and not supported by the information provided in the case.
Question 7 of 9
Based upon an understanding of the normal relationship between gastrin levels and acid secretion, the AGACNP recognizes that which of the following combinations is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion. Gastrinoma is a tumor that secretes excessive gastrin, leading to elevated gastrin levels. High gastrin levels stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, resulting in acid hypersecretion. Therefore, the combination of hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion is almost diagnostic of gastrinoma. A: Hypogastrinemia and acid hyposecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma leads to increased gastrin levels and subsequent acid hypersecretion. B: Hypergastrinemia and acid hyposecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma is associated with acid hypersecretion, not hyposecretion. C: Hypogastrinemia and acid hypersecretion is incorrect because gastrinoma causes elevated gastrin levels and acid hypersecretion, not hypogastrinemia. In summary, the correct answer D aligns with the pathophysiology of gastrinoma, while the
Question 8 of 9
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Preservation of sensorineural hearing. In cholesteatoma, surgery aims to remove the lesion and prevent further damage to the ossicles and inner ear structures. Preserving sensorineural hearing is crucial to maintain auditory function post-surgery. A: Production of a dry ear is important to prevent recurrence, but not the primary goal. C: Debridement of infection is necessary, but the main aim is to address the cholesteatoma itself. D: Restoration of the tympanic membrane may be needed but is not the primary objective in cholesteatoma surgery.
Question 9 of 9
The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this condition, there is a single large vessel arising from the heart that gives rise to the systemic, pulmonary, and coronary arteries. This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygenation of the body, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation typically do not cause immediate death after birth. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal structure that closes shortly after birth and its presence would not directly cause immediate death.