The commonest causative organism of pyelonephritis is

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Question 1 of 9

The commonest causative organism of pyelonephritis is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Escherichia coli. E. coli is the most common causative organism of pyelonephritis due to its prevalence in the gastrointestinal tract. It has specific virulence factors that enable it to ascend the urinary tract and cause infection. Streptococcus faecalis, Proteus vulgaris, and Staphylococcus pyogene are less commonly associated with pyelonephritis compared to E. coli.

Question 2 of 9

Janice is a 32-year-old female who presents for evaluation of abdominal pain. She has no significant medical or surgical history and denies any history of ulcers, reflux, or gastritis. However, she is now in significant pain and is afraid something is really wrong. She describes what started out as a dull discomfort in the upper part of her stomach a few hours ago but has now become more profound and centered on the right side just under her ribcage. She has not vomited but says she feels nauseous. Physical exam reveals normal vital signs except for a pulse of 117 bpm. She is clearly uncomfortable, and palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness with deep palpation of the right upper quadrant. The AGACNP orders which imaging study to investigate the likely cause?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A HIDA scan. A HIDA scan is the most appropriate imaging study for investigating the likely cause in this case because the patient's symptoms (abdominal pain centered on the right side just under the ribcage, tenderness in the right upper quadrant) are suggestive of a possible gallbladder issue, such as cholecystitis or biliary colic. A HIDA scan is specifically used to evaluate the gallbladder and biliary system. A: Abdominal radiographs would not provide detailed information about the gallbladder or biliary system, and are not the best choice in this scenario. B: A CT scan of the abdomen with contrast can be helpful in some situations, but it may not provide the specific information needed to evaluate the gallbladder and biliary system. C: Right upper quadrant ultrasound is a good initial imaging study for evaluating gallbladder disease, but a HIDA scan is more specific for functional assessment of

Question 3 of 9

He has had 1 L of NSS infused by emergency medical services. His vital signs reveal a pulse of 128 bpm and a blood pressure of 8860 mm Hg. With respect to his hypotension, the AGACNP recognizes that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: His blood pressure is likely a physiologic response to traumatic head injury. Rationale: 1. Physiologic response: Traumatic head injury can lead to autonomic dysregulation, causing increased sympathetic activity and elevated blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion. 2. Compensation mechanism: The body may increase blood pressure in response to hypotension to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. 3. Treatment consideration: Understanding that elevated blood pressure can be a compensatory mechanism helps guide appropriate management strategies for traumatic head injury patients. Summary: A: Vasopressors can be used in traumatic head injury depending on the specific situation, and they are not always contraindicated. B: While hypotension can worsen outcomes in traumatic head injury, this choice overstates the risk without providing context. D: Identifying the cause of hypotension is crucial in managing traumatic head injury patients and should not be disregarded in favor of stabilizing the head injury.

Question 4 of 9

The AGACNP is counseling a patient about various methods of tumor biopsy. Which of the following is not an accurate statement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Fine needle aspiration does not allow grading of tumors. Rationale: 1. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) collects cells for cytology evaluation, not tissue for grading. 2. Grading requires evaluation of tissue architecture, which is not possible with FNA. 3. FNA is useful for diagnosis but not for determining tumor grade. Summary: A: Incorrect - Excisional biopsy is preferred over incisional biopsy to obtain the entire tumor for diagnosis and grading. B: Incorrect - Core needle biopsy has a lower false positive rate compared to fine needle aspiration. D: Incorrect - Core needle and incisional biopsies differ in the amount of tissue sampled and potential for false results.

Question 5 of 9

Complications of occipito-posterior position:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because occipito-posterior position can lead to prolonged labor due to poor fetal positioning, causing maternal back pain. This can result in fetal distress as the baby may have difficulty descending through the birth canal. Postpartum hemorrhage, uterine rupture, fetal death (choices B and C) are not typically associated with occipito-posterior position. Therefore, choice A is the most appropriate answer.

Question 6 of 9

When counseling a patient about his surgical options for an ulcer that has been refractory to medical therapy, the AGACNP advises the patient that he will need

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D. Some form of vagotomy Rationale: 1. Vagotomy is a surgical procedure that involves cutting the vagus nerve to reduce acid production in the stomach, which can help in treating ulcers. 2. Vagotomy is often recommended when ulcers are refractory to medical therapy, making it an appropriate surgical option. 3. Lifelong vitamin D replacement (A) is not typically necessary for ulcer treatment. Excision of the ulcer (B) is not a common treatment and does not address the underlying cause. Eating smaller meals (C) may help manage symptoms but is not a surgical option for refractory ulcers.

Question 7 of 9

Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding occurs

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within the first week of birth. Classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding typically occurs within the first week of birth due to low levels of vitamin K in newborns. During this time, infants are at a higher risk of bleeding complications if not supplemented with vitamin K. Choice A is incorrect because bleeding usually occurs after the first 24 hours. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specify a specific time frame within the neonatal stage. Choice D is incorrect as classical vitamin K deficiency bleeding is typically seen within the first week, not necessarily during the entire infancy stage.

Question 8 of 9

In mild preeclampsia, the mother has no complaints.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and sometimes mild edema. This indicates that the mother does have complaints, albeit they may be mild. The other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect because in mild preeclampsia, the mother does have complaints, so option A is not true. Options C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.

Question 9 of 9

Which one of the following statements is correct with regards to face presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Majority are classified as secondary face presentation. In face presentation, the fetal head is hyperextended, presenting the face to the birth canal. Primary face presentation is rare. The bi-parietal diameter is not the presenting diameter in face presentation, as it is in vertex presentation. Locating the anterior fontanelle is not diagnostic of face presentation, as the fontanelles can be difficult to palpate during labor. Therefore, the correct statement is that the majority of face presentations are classified as secondary face presentation.

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