The clinical manifestations of atopic dermatitis vary with age. In infants, atopic dermatitis usually spares

Questions 230

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pediatric Nursing Study Guide Questions

Question 1 of 5

The clinical manifestations of atopic dermatitis vary with age. In infants, atopic dermatitis usually spares

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In infants, atopic dermatitis typically spares the diaper area, making option D the correct answer. This is because the diaper area is usually not as commonly affected by atopic dermatitis in infants due to the protective barrier provided by diapers and frequent diaper changes. The skin in this area is also typically exposed to less friction and irritation compared to other parts of the body. Option A, the face, is often affected in infants with atopic dermatitis, especially on the cheeks. However, the cheeks themselves are not spared from atopic dermatitis, making option C incorrect. Option B, the scalp, can also be affected by atopic dermatitis in infants, especially in cases where there is cradle cap (seborrheic dermatitis). Understanding the specific clinical manifestations of atopic dermatitis in infants is crucial for pediatric nurses to accurately assess and manage this common condition in pediatric patients. Recognizing the areas typically spared by atopic dermatitis, like the diaper area, helps in differential diagnosis and appropriate treatment planning. By knowing these details, nurses can provide better care and support to infants and their families dealing with atopic dermatitis.

Question 2 of 5

A term newborn with dysmorphic features, pleural effusions, and juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia is most likely to have which underlying condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Noonan syndrome. Noonan syndrome is a genetic disorder that presents with dysmorphic features, pleural effusions, and an increased risk of juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia. Dysmorphic features commonly seen in Noonan syndrome include a webbed neck, low-set ears, and a short stature. Pleural effusions can occur due to heart defects commonly associated with Noonan syndrome. Option A) Cockayne syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by growth failure, premature aging, and sensitivity to sunlight. It does not typically present with pleural effusions or myelomonocytic leukemia. Option B) Fanconi anaemia is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the bone marrow, leading to bone marrow failure and an increased risk of certain cancers. It is not typically associated with the specific symptoms described in the question. Option D) Omenn syndrome is a severe combined immunodeficiency disorder characterized by erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, and hepatosplenomegaly. While it can present with some overlapping features, it is not typically associated with pleural effusions or myelomonocytic leukemia. In an educational context, understanding the clinical manifestations and associations of genetic disorders is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in pediatric nursing. By recognizing the key features of Noonan syndrome in this case, nurses can provide appropriate care and anticipate potential complications, such as myelomonocytic leukemia, in affected newborns. This knowledge can guide nursing assessments, interventions, and family education to optimize patient outcomes.

Question 3 of 5

A pregnant woman with a son affected by spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type 2 is expecting a male fetus. What is the risk that the fetus will be affected?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) 1 in 4. The risk that the fetus will be affected by spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type 2 is 25% (1 in 4) because when a carrier mother and a father who is a carrier have a child, there is a 25% chance that the child will inherit two copies of the mutated gene responsible for SMA. This results in the child being affected by the condition. Option A) 1 in 2 is incorrect because this ratio would apply if both parents were carriers, but in this case, only the mother is a carrier. Option C) 1 in 50 and Option D) 1 in 200 are also incorrect as they do not reflect the Mendelian inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive conditions like SMA. From an educational standpoint, understanding the principles of genetic inheritance is crucial in pediatric nursing. Nurses caring for families with genetic conditions like SMA need to have a solid grasp of how these conditions are passed on to offspring. By knowing the risks involved, nurses can provide accurate information to families, offer appropriate support, and facilitate genetic counseling when necessary.

Question 4 of 5

All of the following may increase plasma levels of theophylline EXCEPT

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding theophylline medication and factors that can impact its plasma levels is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In this case, the correct answer is D) smoking marijuana, which does not increase plasma levels of theophylline. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by the liver through the CYP1A2 enzyme pathway. Smoking marijuana does not significantly affect this pathway or interfere with theophylline metabolism. A) Cimetidine is known to increase the plasma levels of theophylline by inhibiting its metabolism in the liver. Cimetidine can lead to theophylline toxicity if co-administered. B) Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that can inhibit the metabolism of theophylline, leading to increased plasma levels. It competes for the same liver enzyme system, which can result in elevated theophylline concentrations. C) The influenza vaccine does not have a direct impact on the plasma levels of theophylline. It is essential for preventing influenza infection, especially in pediatric patients who are more vulnerable to respiratory illnesses. Educationally, understanding drug interactions and factors affecting medication levels is crucial for pediatric nurses. By knowing which medications or substances can impact theophylline levels, nurses can prevent adverse effects and ensure proper dosing for pediatric patients with respiratory conditions like asthma. This knowledge enhances patient safety and quality of care in pediatric nursing practice.

Question 5 of 5

Which does the radioallergosorbent test (RAST) determine?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Antigen-specific serum IgE concentrations. The radioallergosorbent test (RAST) is a blood test used to measure the amount of specific IgE antibodies in the blood that are produced in response to allergens. This test is commonly used in the diagnosis of allergies, especially in pediatric patients. Option A) Bronchial reactivity to serotonin is incorrect because RAST does not measure reactivity to serotonin but rather to allergens. Option B) Bronchial reactivity to specific toxins is incorrect as RAST is specifically used to detect IgE antibodies related to allergens, not toxins. Option C) Bronchial reactivity after inhalation bronchial challenge is incorrect as this option refers to a different test called bronchial challenge test, not RAST which measures IgE levels. Educational Context: Understanding the purpose of RAST is essential in pediatric nursing as it helps in diagnosing allergies in children. By measuring specific IgE antibodies in the blood, healthcare providers can identify the allergens triggering allergic reactions in children. This knowledge is crucial in developing appropriate treatment plans and providing necessary education to parents and caregivers on allergen avoidance and management strategies.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions