Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

test bank foundations of nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

The clinic nurse is assessing a child who has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are suggestive of otitis externa. What assessment finding is characteristic of otitis externa?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain on manipulation of the auricle is characteristic of otitis externa. This is because otitis externa is an infection or inflammation of the outer ear canal, causing pain and tenderness when the ear is touched or manipulated. A: Tophi on the pinna and ear lobe is characteristic of gout, not otitis externa. B: Dark yellow cerumen in the external auditory canal is common and not specific to otitis externa. D: Air bubbles visible in the middle ear are associated with otitis media, not otitis externa. In summary, pain on manipulation of the auricle is a key assessment finding in otitis externa, distinguishing it from other ear conditions.

Question 2 of 5

A public health nurse is teaching a health class for the male students at the local high school. The nurse is teaching the boys to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. What point would be appropriate to emphasize?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. This is the most appropriate point to emphasize because early detection through regular self-examinations can lead to early treatment and a high survival rate. Testicular cancer has a very high cure rate, especially when detected and treated early. Emphasizing this point encourages boys to perform monthly self-exams, leading to early detection and better outcomes. Explanation of other choices: B: Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose - This is incorrect because testicular cancer is actually one of the more easily detectable cancers through self-examinations. C: Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males - This is incorrect as testicular cancer is not the leading cause of cancer deaths in males. D: Testicular cancer is more common in older men - This is incorrect as testicular cancer is more common in younger men, typically between the ages of 15 and 44.

Question 3 of 5

A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient’s magnesium level is 6 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop the infusion of magnesium. A magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range (4-7 mg/dL) for preeclamptic patients receiving magnesium sulfate. Continuing the infusion can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and neuromuscular blockade. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate (B) and deep tendon reflexes (C) are important, but stopping the infusion takes priority to prevent harm. Notifying the health care provider (D) is important but may delay immediate action to address the high magnesium level.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.

Question 5 of 5

Initiate feeding.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (2, 4, 1, 3, 5) because it follows the correct sequential order for initiating feeding. First, you need to prepare the food (2), then set up the feeding area (4), followed by inviting the person to eat (1), serving the food (3), and finally allowing them to eat (5). The other choices do not adhere to the logical sequence required for initiating feeding. Choice A and D have incorrect sequences of steps, while Choice C has steps 1 and 4 switched, which disrupts the proper order of initiating feeding.

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