ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking piroxicam with food or an oral antacid can help reduce GI irritation as it can protect the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effects on prostaglandin synthesis. Spacing the administration every 4 hours (choice A) may not necessarily prevent GI upset. Using the drug for a short time only (choice B) may not address the immediate concern of GI irritation. Decreasing the piroxicam dosage (choice C) may not be necessary if taking it with food or an antacid can effectively alleviate the GI upset.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse assesses the motor functions during a neurologic examination of a client. Which of the ff steps will help the nurse perform the examination effectively? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Allowing the client to grasp the nurse's hand firmly assesses grip strength and motor coordination. 2. This step helps evaluate the client's ability to follow instructions and perform a coordinated motor task accurately. 3. Assessing grip strength is essential in determining any muscle weakness or neurological deficits. 4. It also provides insight into the client's motor function and coordination abilities. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on sensory functions rather than motor functions. - Choice C assesses fine motor skills, not grip strength and coordination. - Choice D evaluates cognition and logic, which are not directly related to motor function assessment.
Question 3 of 9
What part of the nursing diagnosis statement suggests the nursing interventions to be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Etiology of the problem. In a nursing diagnosis statement, the etiology describes the underlying cause or contributing factors to the identified problem. This is crucial as it guides the selection of appropriate nursing interventions aimed at addressing the root cause of the issue. By addressing the etiology, nurses can implement interventions that will effectively treat the problem. Choice A (Problem statement) simply identifies the issue without providing insight into its cause. Choice B (Defining characteristics) lists the signs and symptoms of the problem but doesn't directly inform the interventions needed. Choice D (Outcomes criteria) outlines the expected results of the interventions but doesn't directly suggest which interventions to implement. Thus, C is the correct choice as it directly influences the selection of appropriate nursing interventions.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with thrombocytopenia. What is the best way to protect this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use the smallest needle possible for injections. In a client with thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), there is an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Using the smallest needle possible for injections reduces the risk of causing injury to blood vessels and tissues, minimizing bleeding complications. Limiting visits by family members (choice A) is not directly related to protecting the client's safety. Encouraging wheelchair use (choice B) is not necessary unless indicated for mobility reasons. Maintaining accurate fluid intake and output records (choice D) is important for overall client care but does not directly address the risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia.
Question 5 of 9
A client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), an autoimmune disorder, is admitted to an acute care facility. Concerned about hemorrhage, the nurse monitors the client’s platelet count and observes closely for signs and symptoms of bleeding. The client is at greatest risk for cerebral hemorrhage when the platelet count falls below:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20,000/ul. A platelet count below 20,000/ul puts the client at the highest risk for cerebral hemorrhage due to severe thrombocytopenia. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, and a low count increases the risk of spontaneous bleeding, especially in critical organs like the brain. Choices A, C, and D have platelet counts that are higher than the critical level of 20,000/ul, so they do not pose as high a risk for cerebral hemorrhage. Option D, 500/ul, is extremely low and would likely lead to severe bleeding, but the critical threshold for cerebral hemorrhage is considered to be around 20,000/ul.
Question 6 of 9
Antihistamines are used cautiously in older men with prostatic hypertrophy for which of the ff reasons?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Because these clients may experience difficulty voiding. Antihistamines can worsen urinary symptoms in men with prostatic hypertrophy by causing urinary retention. This is due to the anticholinergic effects of antihistamines, which can lead to decreased bladder contraction and difficulty in voiding. Increased drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of antihistamines but is not specific to older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice C, greater risk of cardiac arrest, is not directly related to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy. Choice D, lower autoimmune response in clients with AIDS, is unrelated to the use of antihistamines in older men with prostatic hypertrophy.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse will assess a loss of ability in which of the following areas?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Balance. Loss of ability in balance can indicate various health issues like neurological disorders or musculoskeletal problems. The nurse can assess this by observing the patient's gait, balance while standing, and coordination. Speech (B) relates to communication abilities, judgment (C) involves decision-making skills, and endurance (D) is related to stamina and physical capacity, which are not directly linked to loss of ability.
Question 8 of 9
Which scenario best illustrates the nurse using data validation when making a nursing clinical decision for a patient? The nurse determines to remove a wound dressing when the patient reveals the time
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it demonstrates data validation in the nursing clinical decision-making process. The nurse assesses the time of the last dressing change and observes old and new drainage, which are relevant data points for wound care. This approach ensures that the decision to remove the dressing is based on accurate and validated information, leading to appropriate patient care. Choice B is incorrect because it relies on subjective information (increased pain and family request) rather than objective data validation. Choice C is incorrect as it involves a direct request for an order without sufficient data validation. Choice D is incorrect because elevating a leg cast based solely on a patient's report of decreased mobility does not involve thorough data validation related to the specific care needed for the patient's condition.
Question 9 of 9
How can the nurse help monitor effectiveness of therapy for the patient with a pneumothorax and chest-drainage system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate lung sounds. By auscultating lung sounds, the nurse can assess for changes in breath sounds which can indicate improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition. This helps monitor the effectiveness of therapy for a pneumothorax and chest-drainage system. Palpating for crepitus (A) is not directly related to monitoring therapy effectiveness. Documenting sputum color and amount (B) is important but does not specifically monitor therapy effectiveness. Monitoring suction level (D) is crucial but does not directly assess the patient's response to therapy.