ATI RN
Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client receives nystatin (Nilstat) for a fungal infection in the mouth. The nurse plans to do medication education prior to discharge. What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nystatin is an antifungal used for oral candidiasis (thrush), and its effectiveness depends on proper administration. For oral infections, the medication must remain in contact with the affected mucosal surfaces as long as possible. Dissolving the tablet in the mouth ensures prolonged exposure to the fungus, allowing it to act locally before swallowing, which is the recommended method for tablets or lozenges. Using a straw might apply to suspensions but isn't standard for preventing discoloration, which isn't a primary concern with nystatin. Crushing and mixing with juice alters the drug's intended delivery, reducing contact time with the infection site. Swallowing whole bypasses the oral mucosa entirely, rendering it ineffective for thrush. Thus, choice A aligns with nystatin's mechanism, ensuring optimal therapeutic outcomes through direct mucosal contact.
Question 2 of 5
The client receives nystatin (Nilstat) for a fungal infection in the mouth. The nurse plans to do medication education prior to discharge. What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nystatin is an antifungal used for oral candidiasis (thrush), and its effectiveness depends on proper administration. For oral infections, the medication must remain in contact with the affected mucosal surfaces as long as possible. Dissolving the tablet in the mouth ensures prolonged exposure to the fungus, allowing it to act locally before swallowing, which is the recommended method for tablets or lozenges. Using a straw might apply to suspensions but isn't standard for preventing discoloration, which isn't a primary concern with nystatin. Crushing and mixing with juice alters the drug's intended delivery, reducing contact time with the infection site. Swallowing whole bypasses the oral mucosa entirely, rendering it ineffective for thrush. Thus, choice A aligns with nystatin's mechanism, ensuring optimal therapeutic outcomes through direct mucosal contact.
Question 3 of 5
Myeloablation using chemotherapeutic agents is useful in cancer treatment because:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Myeloablation refers to the destruction of bone marrow, which is a critical step in preparing a patient for a bone marrow or stem cell transplant. This process eliminates both cancerous and healthy bone marrow cells, creating space for the transplanted cells to engraft and repopulate the marrow. While myeloablation can reduce tumor size, its primary purpose is to prepare the body for transplantation. It is not related to destroying muscle cells or reducing postoperative chemotherapy requirements.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin's efficacy drops with high vitamin K intake, like spinach , risking clots'avoidance is key. Milk doesn't help. Stopping or doubling risks instability. Spinach avoidance aligns with warfarin's action, critical in anticoagulation where diet impacts INR, making A the essential instruction.
Question 5 of 5
An otherwise healthy 78-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 168/80 at a routine check, and similar pressures are confirmed on three separate occasions despite adhering to dietary advice. Investigations including an ECG and creatinine/electrolytes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Systolic hypertension (168 mmHg) in the elderly increases cardiovascular risk, despite normal diastolic (80 mmHg). Echo isn't first-line without organ damage signs (normal ECG). Reassurance ignores systolic risk; treatment is indicated (>160 mmHg). Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, is less preferred initially due to hypotension risk. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is effective, but amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is most appropriate per guidelines (e.g., NICE) for isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly, offering vascular protection and tolerability. Its efficacy reduces stroke and MI risk, critical at this age.