The client receives estrogen for prostate cancer. He asks the nurse why he is receiving a female hormone. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen suppresses androgen production , starving androgen-dependent prostate cancer. Choice A misstates cell death. Choice B overstates testosterone elimination. Choice D misattributes nutrient blockade. C explains the hormonal mechanism accurately, making it the best response.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes by helping to control high blood sugar levels. It works by decreasing the amount of sugar produced by the liver and increasing the body's response to insulin. By aiding in controlling blood glucose levels, metformin helps prevent complications of diabetes such as kidney damage, blindness, nerve problems, and loss of limbs. It does not lower blood pressure, diminish seizure activity, increase heart rate, or decrease gastrointestinal secretions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Metformin is commonly known by its brand name Glucophage. It is a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes by helping to control blood sugar levels. It works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity in the body.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen suppresses androgen production , starving androgen-dependent prostate cancer. Choice A misstates cell death. Choice B overstates testosterone elimination. Choice D misattributes nutrient blockade. C explains the hormonal mechanism accurately, making it the best response.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Insulin glargine is typically administered subcutaneously. Subcutaneous injection allows for slow and continuous absorption of the medication, providing a sustained release of insulin to help regulate blood sugar levels. This route of administration is commonly used for long-acting insulins like insulin glargine to provide basal insulin coverage throughout the day. Sublingual, oral, IV, and other routes are not appropriate for administering insulin glargine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Dehydration, common in elders from reduced thirst, lowers drug clearance (e.g., renal function drops), risking toxicity-key in pharmacokinetics. Alcohol abuse varies, not primary. Constipation affects excretion less than fluid status. Stomach acid decreases, not increases, with age. Dehydration's impact on volume and clearance drives toxicity risk.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Missing oral contraceptive pills reduces their efficacy, increasing pregnancy risk. If several pills are missed , the hormonal protection is compromised, requiring an alternative method (e.g., condoms) for the cycle's remainder to prevent conception. Immediate pregnancy testing assesses outcome, not prevention. Suggesting a new method addresses future planning, not current risk. Choice C underestimates the risk, as even fewer than three missed pills can disrupt efficacy, depending on timing. The nurse's best instruction (D) ensures immediate protection, aligning with contraceptive guidelines for missed doses, prioritizing safety and efficacy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic and adverse effects associated with these drugs are related to their adrenergic-receptor-site specificity; that is, the ability to react with specific adrenergic receptor sites without activating them, thus preventing the typical manifestations of sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activation. By occupying the adrenergic receptor site, they prevent norepinephrine released from the nerve terminal or from the adrenal medulla from activating the receptor, thus blocking the SNS effects. The nurse should understand the mechanism of action of adrenergic blocking agents to ensure safe and effective administration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is a versatile antibiotic that is effective in the treatment of various infections caused by anaerobic bacteria and parasites.