The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase the dose of warfarin. INR of 1.2 indicates subtherapeutic levels. The nurse's priority is to adjust the dose to achieve a therapeutic range (usually 2-3). Increasing the dose is essential to prevent clot formation. Administering vitamin K (B) is not indicated for a low INR. Monitoring for bleeding (C) is important, but not the priority when the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider (D) may be necessary if the INR is too high, not low.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: Monitor the client's thyroid function tests regularly. This is the best approach because amiodarone can cause hypothyroidism, so monitoring thyroid function tests allows early detection and appropriate management. Option A is not necessary unless the client presents with severe symptoms. Option B is incorrect as hypothyroidism is a serious side effect that requires monitoring and possible treatment adjustments. Option D is not recommended as abruptly stopping amiodarone can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Regular monitoring ensures timely intervention if thyroid levels are abnormal.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Dobutamine is a beta-adrenergic agonist that stimulates the heart, increasing heart rate and contractility. Therefore, tachycardia is an expected adverse effect. Bradycardia (B) would be unlikely due to dobutamine's cardiac stimulant effects. Hypertension (C) could occur but is less common than tachycardia. Respiratory distress (D) is not a common adverse effect of dobutamine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because blurred vision can be a serious side effect of amiodarone indicating potential optic nerve damage. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is crucial for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect as blurred vision should not be dismissed as a common side effect. Choices C and D are incorrect as advising the client to stop or discontinue the medication abruptly can be harmful and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. This is because headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Acetaminophen can help relieve the headache without interfering with the therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin. Holding the next dose (B) is not appropriate as it can lead to inadequate treatment of the client's condition. Discontinuing nitroglycerin (C) abruptly can be dangerous as it may cause rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider (D) is not necessary unless the headache persists or worsens.