Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Administering acetaminophen can help relieve the headache. Holding the next dose of nitroglycerin (Choice B) may not address the current headache, and discontinuing nitroglycerin immediately (Choice C) without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous due to the potential for rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is not necessary for a common side effect like a headache, and the nurse can manage this symptom independently.

Question 2 of 5

Which type of medication helps to reduce blood pressure by relaxing the blood vessels?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers work by relaxing the blood vessels, making it easier for the heart to pump blood and reducing blood pressure. Choice B, ACE inhibitor, reduces blood pressure by blocking the production of angiotensin II, a substance that narrows blood vessels. Choice C, Beta-blocker, reduces heart rate and the heart's workload, not directly relaxing blood vessels. Choice D, Diuretic, reduces blood pressure by increasing urine output, reducing the volume of fluid in the blood vessels, rather than directly relaxing them.

Question 3 of 5

This is a chronic condition where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. Heart failure is a chronic condition characterized by the heart's inability to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs, resulting in symptoms such as fatigue, shortness of breath, and fluid retention. Choice B, Cardiomyopathy, refers to diseases of the heart muscle that can lead to heart failure but is not the specific term for the condition described. Choices C and D, Myocarditis and Pericarditis, respectively, are conditions involving inflammation of the heart muscle or the lining around the heart, which can cause heart failure as a complication but are not the primary condition described in the question.

Question 4 of 5

Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath, often occurring at night and associated with heart failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath during sleep, often associated with heart failure. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but is not specifically associated with heart failure. Choice C, Orthopnea, is difficulty breathing that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting up, not necessarily associated with heart failure. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficulty breathing and does not specifically describe the sudden onset at night associated with heart failure as seen in paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

Question 5 of 5

The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

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