The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a common side effect of furosemide. Administering a potassium supplement is essential to prevent complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect because holding furosemide can worsen the client's condition. Choice C is incorrect as continuing the current dose can further lower potassium levels. Choice D is incorrect as Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity, not hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement addresses the underlying issue.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is monitoring a client on dobutamine. What adverse effect should the nurse watch for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Dobutamine is a beta-adrenergic agonist that stimulates the heart, increasing heart rate and contractility. Therefore, tachycardia is an expected adverse effect. Bradycardia (B) would be unlikely due to dobutamine's cardiac stimulant effects. Hypertension (C) could occur but is less common than tachycardia. Respiratory distress (D) is not a common adverse effect of dobutamine.

Question 3 of 5

The client is on amiodarone and reports blurred vision. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because blurred vision can be a serious side effect of amiodarone indicating potential optic nerve damage. Instructing the client to report this symptom to the healthcare provider immediately is crucial for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect as blurred vision should not be dismissed as a common side effect. Choices C and D are incorrect as advising the client to stop or discontinue the medication abruptly can be harmful and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance.

Question 4 of 5

The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to administer acetaminophen as prescribed for the headache. This is because headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Acetaminophen can help relieve the headache without interfering with the therapeutic effects of nitroglycerin. Holding the next dose (B) is not appropriate as it can lead to inadequate treatment of the client's condition. Discontinuing nitroglycerin (C) abruptly can be dangerous as it may cause rebound hypertension. Notifying the healthcare provider (D) is not necessary unless the headache persists or worsens.

Question 5 of 5

What is the primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The primary effect of a calcium channel blocker on the heart is to decrease blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers block the entry of calcium into the smooth muscle cells of blood vessels and the heart. This causes vasodilation and reduces the force of contraction in the heart, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Choices A and B are incorrect as calcium channel blockers typically do not directly affect heart rate. Choice C is incorrect because calcium channel blockers actually tend to lower blood pressure rather than increase it.

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