The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding due to its mechanism of action in preventing blood clot formation. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool is crucial. Incorrect Choices: B: Hypertension - Clopidogrel does not typically cause hypertension. C: Tachycardia - Clopidogrel does not affect heart rate in a way that would lead to tachycardia. D: Bradycardia - Clopidogrel is not associated with causing bradycardia. In summary, monitoring for bleeding is essential when a client is on clopidogrel due to its antiplatelet effects, while hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated adverse effects of this medication.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity as hypokalemia potentiates its effects. Holding the digoxin and informing the healthcare provider allows for further assessment and possible adjustment of the medication regimen. Administering a potassium supplement (A) without adjusting the digoxin dose can still lead to toxicity. Continuing the current digoxin dose (C) without addressing the low potassium level puts the client at risk. Administering Digibind (D) is not necessary at this point as the priority is to address the low potassium level and prevent digoxin toxicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting, so consuming foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. It is important for the client to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to ensure the medication works properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking warfarin with food, at the same time daily, or increasing the dose if a dose is missed can result in adverse effects or reduced effectiveness of the medication.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a persistent cough could indicate a serious side effect of ACE inhibitors, such as angioedema or bronchospasm. Instructing the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider is crucial to evaluate the need to discontinue the medication. Choice A is incorrect as it downplays the potential seriousness of the cough. Choice C is incorrect because a humidifier may not address the underlying cause of the cough. Choice D is incorrect because using a cough suppressant without proper evaluation can mask symptoms of a serious side effect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is elevated (normal range is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so the priority action is to hold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial for further management. Administering potassium supplements (B) would further increase potassium levels. Continuing spironolactone as ordered (C) would exacerbate hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (D) would be contraindicated in this situation.