ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is to take IV heparin. What is a contraindication to giving the drug? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Uncontrolled bleeding) Rationale: 1. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. 2. Uncontrolled bleeding is a contraindication because heparin can increase the risk of bleeding. 3. Deep vein thrombosis (A) is not a contraindication as heparin is used to treat and prevent DVT. 4. Thrombocytosis (C) is an increased platelet count and not a contraindication for heparin. 5. Thrombocytopenia (D) is a low platelet count, which can increase the risk of bleeding, making it a contraindication as well.
Question 2 of 5
The client is experiencing a drug-drug interaction with streptokinase and another drug. Which other drug can cause a drug- drug interaction with streptokinase?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heparin. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots, while Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clot formation. When used together, they can increase the risk of bleeding due to their combined anticoagulant effects. Cimetidine (A), Theophylline (B), and Digoxin (D) do not typically interact with streptokinase in the same way as Heparin. This is because they have different mechanisms of action and do not directly affect the clotting process.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is educating a client who has just been started on Zetia (exetimibe). What does the nurse say to educate the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Zetia interacts with bile acid sequestrants, affecting its absorption. By taking it 2 hours before or 4 hours after a bile acid sequestrant, the absorption of Zetia is maximized. Choice A is incorrect as Zetia can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific interaction with milk. Choice D is incorrect as Zetia can be taken with a statin drug, but the dosing may need to be adjusted based on individual patient factors.
Question 4 of 5
The client is having a standard electrocardiogram. The nurse knows that the QT segment represents what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the QT segment on an electrocardiogram represents the total time for ventricular depolarization and repolarization. This segment includes the time from the beginning of ventricular depolarization to the end of ventricular repolarization. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the QT segment specifically reflects the electrical activity of the ventricles, not the atria. Additionally, choice D is incorrect as it only refers to ventricular depolarization, not the entire process of ventricular repolarization as well.
Question 5 of 5
The client has a third degree AV block. The definitive treatment for this rhythm is what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pacemaker. In a third degree AV block, there is a complete block in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, leading to a significant decrease in heart rate. The definitive treatment for this condition is the placement of a pacemaker to ensure proper coordination of atrial and ventricular contractions. Adenosine (A) is used for certain types of supraventricular tachycardia, not for AV blocks. Epinephrine (B) is used in cardiac arrest situations to increase heart rate and blood pressure, not for AV blocks. Dopamine (D) is a medication used to increase blood pressure in hypotensive states, not for AV blocks.