ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is to take IV heparin. What is a contraindication to giving the drug? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncontrolled bleeding. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, if a client has uncontrolled bleeding, giving heparin can exacerbate the situation and lead to severe bleeding complications. Deep vein thrombosis (A) is a condition where heparin is actually indicated to prevent clot formation. Thrombocytosis (C) is an elevated platelet count and is not a contraindication to heparin. Thrombocytopenia (D) is a low platelet count, which can increase the risk of bleeding with heparin but is not a contraindication on its own.
Question 2 of 5
The client is experiencing a drug-drug interaction with streptokinase and another drug. Which other drug can cause a drug- drug interaction with streptokinase?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Step 2: Heparin is an anticoagulant that also prevents blood clot formation. Step 3: Both streptokinase and heparin can increase the risk of bleeding when used together due to their similar mechanism of action. Step 4: This interaction can lead to excessive bleeding and must be carefully monitored. Step 5: Cimetidine, theophylline, and digoxin do not have a known significant drug-drug interaction with streptokinase. Summary: Choice C (Heparin) is the correct answer because it can potentially cause a drug-drug interaction with streptokinase by increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D do not have a significant interaction with streptokinase.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is educating a client who has just been started on Zetia (exetimibe). What does the nurse say to educate the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Zetia (ezetimibe) should be taken at least 2 hours before or 4 hours after a bile acid sequestrant to avoid interactions that may decrease its absorption. Choice A is incorrect as Zetia can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific restriction on taking Zetia with milk. Choice D is incorrect as Zetia can be taken with a statin drug, but the dosing schedule should be adjusted if taken with a bile acid sequestrant.
Question 4 of 5
The client is having a standard electrocardiogram. The nurse knows that the QT segment represents what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The total time for ventricular depolarization and repolarization. The QT segment on an electrocardiogram represents the time it takes for both ventricular depolarization (Q wave) and repolarization (T wave) to occur. This segment is important for assessing the risk of arrhythmias, as abnormalities in the QT interval can indicate potential cardiac issues. Choice A is incorrect because the QT segment does not represent atrial depolarization, which is typically seen in the P wave. Choice C is incorrect as it confuses the QT segment with atrial activity. Choice D is incorrect as it only mentions ventricular depolarization, while the QT segment encompasses both depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles.
Question 5 of 5
The client has a third degree AV block. The definitive treatment for this rhythm is what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pacemaker. A third-degree AV block is a complete block of electrical signals between the atria and ventricles, leading to a slow heart rate and potential hemodynamic instability. The definitive treatment is to implant a pacemaker to regulate the heart rate and ensure proper conduction. Adenosine (A) is used for supraventricular tachycardias, not AV blocks. Epinephrine (B) and dopamine (D) are used for treating bradycardia in emergency situations but are not definitive treatments for third-degree AV block.