The client is taking phenyton (Dilantin) for seizure control. A sample is drawn to determine the serum drug level, and the nurse reviews the results. Which of the following would indicate a therapeutic serum drug range?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (5 to 10 mcg/ml) because this range is typically considered therapeutic for phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Levels below 5 mcg/ml may be subtherapeutic, leading to inadequate seizure control. Levels above 10 mcg/ml can increase the risk of toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are outside the optimal therapeutic range, leading to either ineffective treatment (B, C) or an increased risk of adverse effects (D). Monitoring drug levels helps ensure the medication's effectiveness while minimizing side effects.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "There is an increase in the intraocular pressure." Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve due to increased pressure within the eye. High intraocular pressure is a key factor in the development of glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect because glaucoma is not associated with an increase in vitreous humor. Choice C is incorrect as glaucoma is not related to a decrease in aqueous humor. Choice D is incorrect because glaucoma is characterized by an increase, not a decrease, in intraocular pressure. Therefore, the most accurate description to explain glaucoma to a patient is the one that mentions the increase in intraocular pressure.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperparathyroidism. This disorder is characterized by excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood. The symptoms described in the question - bone pain, weakness, irritability, and depression - are all associated with hypercalcemia, a common manifestation of hyperparathyroidism. Additionally, the client's anorexia and increased urination can be attributed to the effects of hypercalcemia on the gastrointestinal and renal systems. Diabetes mellitus (choice A) involves high blood sugar levels and is not associated with the symptoms described. Hypoparathyroidism (choice B) is characterized by low levels of parathyroid hormone and calcium, leading to different symptoms such as muscle cramps and seizures. Diabetes insipidus (choice C) is a disorder of water balance characterized by excessive thirst and urination, not the symptoms presented in the question.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a well-established risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to the increased resistance of body cells to insulin. This leads to elevated blood sugar levels. Hypotension (A) is low blood pressure and is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes. Kidney dysfunction (C) is a complication of diabetes but not a direct correlation. Sex (D) does not have a direct link to the development of type 2 diabetes. Therefore, the most likely correlation is with obesity due to its impact on insulin resistance.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium is a major cause of peptic ulcers by weakening the protective mucous layer of the stomach and duodenum. Research has shown a strong association between H. pylori infection and peptic ulcer development. Genetic defects in the gastric mucosa (choice A) are not a proven cause of peptic ulcers. While a high-fat diet (choice C) can exacerbate symptoms, it is not the primary cause. Work-related stress (choice D) may exacerbate symptoms but is not a direct cause of peptic ulcers. Therefore, choice B is the most supported and logical answer based on current research findings.