ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is taking IV heparin. The nurse will want to look out for what adverse reaction of the drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thrombocytopenia. Heparin can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to thrombocytopenia. This can increase the risk of bleeding. Pulmonary embolism (A) and deep vein thrombosis (B) are conditions that heparin is used to prevent, not adverse reactions. Neutropenia (D) is a decrease in neutrophils, which is not a common adverse reaction of heparin. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for thrombocytopenia as an adverse reaction when the client is taking IV heparin.
Question 2 of 5
The client is on streptokinase for a blood clot. What adverse reaction should the nurse be looking out for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Antibody production against the streptokinase. Streptokinase is a foreign protein that can trigger an immune response leading to the production of antibodies. This can result in an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis. Pulmonary embolism (choice A) and acute myocardial infarction (choice B) are not adverse reactions specific to streptokinase. Acute gastric irritation (choice D) is also not a common adverse reaction of streptokinase therapy.
Question 3 of 5
The client has been started on Zetia (exetimibe). The nurse knows that the mechanism of action of this drug is what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - It inhibits absorption of cholesterol in the small intestines. Rationale: Zetia (exetimibe) works by blocking the absorption of cholesterol in the small intestines, leading to decreased levels of LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. By preventing the uptake of dietary cholesterol, Zetia helps lower overall cholesterol levels. This mechanism differs from choices A, C, and D, as Zetia does not affect cholesterol synthesis by the liver (A), increase LDL cholesterol production (C), or alter the ratio of HDL to LDL cholesterol (D). Therefore, the correct answer is B.
Question 4 of 5
The client is having a standard electrocardiogram. The nurse knows that the P wave represents what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atrial depolarization. The P wave on an ECG represents the electrical activity associated with atrial depolarization, specifically the contraction of the atria. This is the first wave seen on an ECG and indicates the initiation of the cardiac cycle. Ventricular depolarization, represented by the QRS complex, occurs after the P wave. Ventricular repolarization, represented by the T wave, occurs after ventricular depolarization. Atrial repolarization is not typically seen on a standard ECG as it is masked by the QRS complex.
Question 5 of 5
The client has a ventricular rate of 40 and P waves that are normal and unconnected to the QRS complex on a standard EKG. What is this called?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Type 2 second degree AV block. In this type of AV block, there is a consistent pattern of dropped QRS complexes due to intermittent failure of AV conduction. The ventricular rate of 40 indicates a slow conduction of impulses from the atria to the ventricles. The presence of normal and unconnected P waves suggests that some P waves are conducted to the ventricles (resulting in QRS complexes) while others are blocked. This pattern is characteristic of Type 2 second degree AV block. Summary: A: Normal sinus rhythm - Incorrect, as the EKG findings do not show a normal sinus rhythm. B: Type 1 second degree AV block - Incorrect, as this type is characterized by a progressively prolonged PR interval leading to a dropped QRS complex, which is not seen in this case. D: Third degree AV block - Incorrect, as in third degree AV block, there is complete dissociation between the atria and