ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is taking IV heparin. The nurse will want to look out for what adverse reaction of the drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thrombocytopenia. IV heparin can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to thrombocytopenia. This adverse reaction can result in an increased risk of bleeding. The nurse should monitor the client's platelet count regularly. Pulmonary embolism (A) and deep vein thrombosis (B) are conditions that heparin is used to prevent and treat, not adverse reactions of the drug. Neutropenia (D) is a decrease in neutrophils, not typically associated with heparin therapy.
Question 2 of 5
The client is on streptokinase for a blood clot. What adverse reaction should the nurse be looking out for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Antibody production against the streptokinase. Streptokinase is a foreign protein that the body may recognize as an antigen, leading to the production of antibodies. This can result in an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis. Pulmonary embolism (A) and acute myocardial infarction (B) are potential complications of a blood clot but not directly related to streptokinase use. Acute gastric irritation (D) is not a common adverse reaction to streptokinase.
Question 3 of 5
The client has been started on Zetia (exetimibe). The nurse knows that the mechanism of action of this drug is what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It inhibits absorption of cholesterol in the small intestines. Zetia works by blocking the absorption of cholesterol in the small intestines, reducing the amount of cholesterol that enters the bloodstream. This mechanism helps lower LDL cholesterol levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Zetia does not affect cholesterol synthesis by the liver, increase LDL cholesterol production, or alter the ratio of HDL to LDL cholesterol.
Question 4 of 5
The client is having a standard electrocardiogram. The nurse knows that the P wave represents what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atrial depolarization. The P wave on an ECG represents the depolarization of the atria, indicating the contraction of the atria. This is the first electrical activity that occurs in the heart's conduction system. Ventricular depolarization (choice A) is represented by the QRS complex, while ventricular repolarization (choice B) is represented by the T wave. Atrial repolarization (choice D) is typically hidden within the QRS complex, making it difficult to identify on a standard ECG. Therefore, the P wave best represents atrial depolarization due to its timing and shape on the ECG waveform.
Question 5 of 5
The client has a ventricular rate of 40 and P waves that are normal and unconnected to the QRS complex on a standard EKG. What is this called?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Type 2 second degree AV block. This is because in this type of AV block, there is a consistent pattern of dropped QRS complexes due to intermittent failure of AV conduction. The P waves are normal but are not followed by QRS complexes, leading to a slow ventricular rate. In contrast, in normal sinus rhythm (choice A), there is a 1:1 relationship between P waves and QRS complexes. Type 1 second degree AV block (choice B) presents with progressively lengthening PR intervals until a QRS complex is dropped, not a consistent pattern like in Type 2. Third-degree AV block (choice D) is characterized by complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular activity, resulting in an independent ventricular rate typically faster than 40.